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183k
c5d3c99f-10cb-4dd9-a082-c3af822058b6
Following is given in case of pernicious anaemia?
Folic acid
Folinic acid
Methyl cobalamin
epogen
2c
single
Ans. C. MethylcobalamineMegaloblastic anaemia is caused due to deficiency of vitamin B-12. it causes degeneration of spinal cord. Methylcobalamine is given (i/m or s/c) for correcting neurological abnormalities.
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
[ "erythropoietin" ]
58,655
2877b31c-26c7-446a-b022-ce70d535b75f
Substantivity of chloraprep remains upto
4 hours
8 hours
12 hours
16 hours
2c
single
null
Dental
null
[ "chlorhexidine" ]
58,657
b85f9baa-5f1c-48c0-aa08-931b31c863f2
Which of the following production is noted in Cushing's Syndrome
Decrease production of cortisol
Increase production of cortisol
Excessive production of epipen
Excessive production of pitressin
1b
single
Cushing syndrome Cushing syndrome is characterized by an excess production of cortisol. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous hypercortisolism, i.e., administration of exogenous glucocorticoids. The cause of endogenous hypercortisolism (endogenous Cushing syndrome) are : - i)    ACTH producing pituitary microadenoma → It is the most common cause of endogenous hypercortisolism and this form of Cushing syndrome is referred to as Cushing disease. ii) Hypersecretion of cortisol by an adrenal adenoma, carcinoma or nodular hyperplasia. iii) The secretion of ectopic ACTH by a nonendocrine neoplasm, e.g., small cell carcinoma of the lung.
Pathology
null
[ "epinephrine", "vasopressin" ]
58,661
d0cfe961-e425-47ae-a6b2-45bac5ff3ad4
Drugs that can be used in opioid de-addiction are?
catapres
valium
dolophine
All of the above
3d
multi
All of the drugs can be used. Methadone is effective orally, more potent ,longer acting and prevents withdrawal symptoms because it is slowly released from tissues. Clonidine a central alpha 2agonist can suppress autonomic.if withdrawal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anxiety and diarrhea. Night time sedation with a hypnotic like diazepam is helpful. Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "methadone", "diazepam", "clonidine" ]
58,692
9d3e422b-03ed-41c4-af8c-b915454a946b
Treatment of choice for tropical splenomegaly is :
resochin ' 6 months
lariam ' 3 months
Proguanil
Pyrimethamine + sulphadoxine X 1 month
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' Proguanil Tropical splenomegaly is a chronic complication of malaria. Some residents of malaria endemic areas in tropical Asia and Africa exhibit an abnormal immunological response to repeated infections with malaria.In these patients IgM antibodies develop against CD8 and CD5 cells. There is increase ratio of CD4/CD8 cells.These disturbances in immunological process results in splenomegaly. Anaemia and pancytopenia can also occur.
Medicine
Drugs
[ "mefloquine", "chloroquine" ]
58,694
422f71c8-e1c5-4ef0-9193-83db65c1a9b8
The drug of choice to control convulsions in eclampsia is:
demerol
valium
Magnesium sulphate
dilantin
2c
single
given by i.v. infusion, it has been used for long to control convulsions and to reduce BP in toxaemia of pregnancy. As per WHO, it is the drug of choice for prevention and treatment of seizures in preeclampsia and eclampsia. REF: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "phenytoin", "pethidine", "diazepam" ]
58,700
f39a7369-e33d-4734-8d94-a5cc8b35b293
One of your patients is found to be dyspnoeic. Auscultation of the Lungs revealed bilateral diffuse wheeze. Which drug would you like to use for fastest relief?
serevent
atrovent Bromide
Monteleukast
ventolin
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "ipratropium", "salmeterol", "salbutamol" ]
58,730
1bd88de0-6bfc-4d47-b65c-3f62cf4a26cd
Select the antibiotic most frequently associated with the Gray baby syndrome (SELECT 1 ANTIBIOTIC)
panmycin
Streptomycin
macrobid
chloromycetin
3d
single
Fetal exposure to an antibiotic depends on many factors such as gestational age, protein binding, lipid solubility, pH, molecular weight, degree of ionization, and concentration gradient. Some antibiotics are even concentrated in the fetal compartment. Tetracycline is contraindicated in all three trimesters. It has been associated with skeletal abnormalities, staining and hypoplasia of budding fetal teeth, bone hypoplasia, and fatal maternal liver decompensation. Sulfonamides are associated with kernicterus in the newborn. They compete with bilirubin for binding sites on albumin, thereby leaving more bilirubin free for diffusion into tissues. Sulfonamides should be withheld during the last 2 to 6 weeks of pregnancy. With prolonged treatment of tuberculosis (TB) in pregnancy, streptomycin has been associated with fetal hearing loss. Its use is restricted to complicated cases of TB. Nitrofurantoin can cause maternal and fetal hemolytic anemia if glucose- 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is present. Chloramphenicol is noted for causing the gray baby syndrome. Infants are unable to properly metabolize the drug, which reaches toxic levels in about 4 days and can lead to neonatal death within 1 to 2 days.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetus & New Born and their Diseases
[ "tetracycline", "chloramphenicol", "nitrofurantoin" ]
58,752
da25930a-fbca-4a32-8728-b9ad6b1986d4
Which of the following potassium sparing diuretics cause renal stones?
carospir
inspra
dyrenium
Amiloride
2c
multi
Triamterene is only slightly soluble and may precipitate in the urine, causing kidney stones. Ref: Katzung, 11th edition, Chapter 15.
Pharmacology
null
[ "eplerenone", "spironolactone", "triamterene" ]
58,755
fb4728d6-45e8-4979-81d8-b15d794adce5
All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except-
viracept
invirase
Abacavir
norvir
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Abacavir Antiretroviral drugs a) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NIs) - Zidovudin, Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Larnivudine, Abacavir. b) Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor Tenofovir (Katzung I Oth/e) c) Nonucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNIS) - Nevirapine, Eirenz, Delavirdine, Etravirine Rilpivirine. d) Protease inhibitors - Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Saquinavir, amprenavir, Lopinavir, Fosamprenavir, Atazanavir, Darunavir, Tipranavir. e) Fusion inhibitor - Enfuviide, Maraviroc. f) Integrase inhibitors - Roltegravir, Elvitegravir.
Pharmacology
null
[ "nelfinavir", "ritonavir", "saquinavir" ]
58,764
8c4e463b-84b7-4bd1-abab-f7ddc889c1c6
panmycin ointment for mass prophylaxis -
0.10%
0.50%
1&
5%
2c
single
In blanket antibiotic therapy, the regimen is sto apply 1% tetracycline eye ointment twice daily for 5 days in a month for 6 months. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.72 & 4th/e p.68
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
[ "tetracycline" ]
58,766
35592376-004b-4dcb-b14f-3d955883f11d
Which is the major hormone secreted by the corpus luteum in a lady of reproductive age?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Testosterone
synthroid
1b
single
Corpus luteum mainly secretes progesterone and small quantities of estrogen. The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood and is called corpus hemorragicum. The granulosa and theca cells of the follicle lining begin to proliferate, and the clotted blood is rapidly replaced with yellowish, lipid-rich luteal cells, forming the corpus luteum. Growth of corpus luteum depends upon adequate blood supply and availability of VEGF. If pregnancy occurs, corpus luteum persists and if pregnancy does not occur the corpus luteum begins to degenerate about 4 days before the next menses (24th day of the cycle) and is eventually replaced by scar tissue, forming a corpus albicans. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24th Edition, Chapter 22
Physiology
null
[ "thyroxine" ]
58,777
a91d38b2-0205-466b-8659-403ee7601e19
The drug that causes fall in elderly patients with postural hypotension is:-
glucophage
minipress
precose
Nor-adrenaline
1b
multi
The side effect postural hypotension AkA ''First Dose Hypotension" is observed with drug ending with zosin Prazosin, Terazosin, Doxazosin (d) Acarbose - Inhibition of intestinal absorption of carbohydrate. S/E - flatulence, abdominal discomfo, loose stool. These drugs cause blocking of a1receptors, leading tovasodilation, that can Cause Postural Hypotension. (a)Metformin -Antidiabetic drug which comes under the category of Biguanide. S/E - Abdominal Pain, Anorexia, bloating, nausea, metallic taste mild diarrhea & tiredness. Nor - adrenaline(Press or agent)- stimulates a1 and a2 adrenergic receptors to cause blood vessel contraction, thus increases peripheral vascular resistance and result in increase BP. It acts on b1 adrenergic receptors, causing increase In hea rate and cardiac output. S/E = Transient restlessness, headache, palpitations, Anxiety,tremor. Marked rise in BP leading to cerebral hemorrhage, ventricular tachycardia, angina, MI.
Pharmacology
FMGE 2018
[ "metformin", "acarbose", "prazosin" ]
58,789
76002754-6bc1-49f9-90aa-9e03112f168b
The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is :
extina
Amphotericin B
5-ancobon
griseofulvic
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "flucytosine", "griseofulvin", "ketoconazole" ]
58,797
42560df5-b1de-4eab-81af-26904ec56ffa
Most commonly used local anesthesia
1:20,000 xylocaine Hcl
1:50,000 xylocaine Hcl
1:10,000 xylocaine Hcl
1:80,000 xylocaine Hcl
3d
single
null
Surgery
null
[ "xylocaine" ]
58,804
718f54d3-cdd2-485c-8945-f764d6d471f2
Anesthesia agent with least analgesic propey
N20
fluothane
Ether
Propane
1b
single
B i.e. Halothane
Anaesthesia
null
[ "halothane" ]
58,808
81c907ae-6689-48b1-afb2-6f19e0c54c08
Antidote for copper poisoning is: March 2009
D-cuprimine
Potassium ferrocyanide
BAL
Desferrioxamine
1b
single
Ans. B: Potassium ferrocyanide Treatment of copper poisoning: Stomach wash with 1 percent solution of potassium ferrocyanide which acts as an antidote by forming an insoluble cupric ferrocyanide Emetics are contraindicated Demulcent drinks form insoluble albuminate of copper Castor oil Chelation with penicillamine/ EDTA/ BAL
Forensic Medicine
null
[ "penicillamine" ]
58,811
16746670-2daf-4416-bb3c-2b590fa575d0
All of the following antidiabetic drugs act by enhancing insulin resistance except
byetta
Sitagliptan
Rosiglitazone
prandin
2c
multi
Refer KDT 7th /270 Rosiglitaxzone does not act by increasing insulin secretion Rosiglitazone is an oral antihyperglycemic agent that acts primarily by decreasing insulin resistance
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "exenatide", "repaglinide" ]
58,820
8c30e11c-f711-4c3e-93b6-82b8d4f9d12a
A 35 years old female came with multiple inverted sauce shaped ulcer over the body,sensations was near normal . SSS was positive and lepromin test was negative.How do you treat this patient?
T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.lamprene 300 mg once in month and T.lamprene 50 mg daily + T. aczone 100 mg daily for 12 months
T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.lamprene 300 mg once in month and T.lamprene 100 mg daily + T. aczone 1000 mg daily for 12 months
T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.lamprene 300 mg once in month and T.lamprene 50 mg daily + T. aczone 100 mg daily for 6 months
T.Rifampicin 600 mg and T.lamprene 300 mg once in month and T.lamprene 50 mg daily + T. aczone 100 mg daily for 6 months
0a
single
Multiple skin lesions,normal sensation indicating no nerve compresion,SSS :positive suggests of multibacillary leprosy
Dental
null
[ "clofazimine", "dapsone" ]
58,821
fc28bcf0-7de7-4ca8-8d59-0f4e4f08462d
Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobacterium leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens:
Norfloxacin
floxin
proquin
Lomefloxacin
1b
single
Ofloxacin is highly active against Mycobacterium leprae and is being used in alternative multidrug therapy regimens. As a component of MDT, it has been found to hasten the bacteriological and clinical response. Drugs used for drug resistant leprosy are: Ofloxacin Minocycline Claihromycin
Pharmacology
Mycobacterial Diseases (TB, Leprosy and MAC)
[ "ciprofloxacin", "ofloxacin" ]
58,830
38652d95-5e12-4dba-937c-0d593967a575
Gray baby syndrome is caused by -
Penicillin
chloromycetin
Rifampicin
staticin
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloramphenicol o Chloramphenicol causes gray baby syndrome in premature neonates due to blockade of electron transpo in liver, myocardium and skeletal muscle. Remember o Chloramphenical is the most common cause of aplastic anemia. o Tetracyclines are the most common cause of superinfections.
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin", "chloramphenicol" ]
58,854
3c8a98fe-eb7a-4527-8334-95274f4bcf75
Wof chemotherapeutic drugs inhibit the polymerization of microtubules but is not associated with causing bone marrow supression
platinol
vincasar
Vinblastine
5 FU
1b
single
Vinca alkaloids Mech of action:- These are mitotic inhibitors, bind to microtubular protein--'tubulin', prevent its polymerization and assembly of microtubules, cause disruption of mitotic spindle and interfere with cytoskeletal function. The chromosomes fail to move apa during mitosis: metaphase arrest occurs. They are cell cycle specific and act in the mitotic phase. Vincristine (oncovin):- Uses:- It is a rapidly acting drug, very useful for inducing remission in childhood acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, but is not good for maintenance therapy. Other indications are acute myeloid leukaemia, Hodgkin's disease, Wilms' tumour, Ewing's sarcoma, neuroblastoma and carcinoma lung. Adverse effects:- peripheral neuropathy and alopecia. It also causes ataxia, nerve palsies, autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, paralytic ileus, urinary retention) and seizures. Bone marrow depression is minimal, but syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH) can occur. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-865
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "vincristine", "cisplatin" ]
58,859
31187706-8b27-4508-aafb-008e1dde82eb
Treatment of acute femoral embolus is-
jantoven
Heparin
Immediate embolectomy
Embolectomy after 5 days bed rest
2c
single
null
Surgery
null
[ "warfarin" ]
58,864
72329bab-3cf8-4611-8b8f-3a0653f79155
A 56-year-old African-American man with COPD comes to the physician for a routine examination. His average diurnal ambulatory blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg. Laboratory studies show creatinine level of 3.2 mg/dL and a potassium level of 5.6 mg/dL. Which of the following medications would most likely be considered the first-line treatment in this patient?
norvasc
Doxazosin
inderal
Pamipril
0a
single
null
Medicine
null
[ "propranolol", "amlodipine" ]
58,875
7ad6cb6e-d031-4b2b-a28c-893c8ca0e28c
oxoject causes ail EXCEPT:
Milk ejection
Induction of labour
Attaches to VI receptors
Milk production
3d
multi
ANSWER: (D) Milk productionREF: Ganongs 22nd ed p- 243, www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7922507OXYTOCIN:Oxytocin is a peptide of nine amino acids (a nonapeptide)released by the human posterior pituitary glandActions:Oxytocin has peripheral (hormonal) actions, and also has actions in the brain. Its actions are mediated by specific, high-affinity oxytocin receptors. The oxytocin receptor is a G-protein-coupled receptorActs on myoepithelial cells of the ducts in the breast to squeeze the milk out of areola of iactating breast causing galactokinesis or milk ejection or letting down reflex. Remember milk production is not a function of oxytocinInitiation of labour: it acts on uterine musculature to cause its contraction and initiates labour via positive feed back mechanism. However it's important to note that oxytocin acts on an endometrium primed by estrogen, and progesterone antagonises this function of oxytocin.It also acts on non pregnant uterus to cause sperm transportIt has been found that since the structure of oxytocin is similar to vasopressin it can act on VI receptors in the brain , although the effect is 10 times lesser , hence large doses of oxytocin can cause a state similar to vasopressin excessGiven as syntocinon for induction of labour in intravenous or nasal spray forms. Atosiban a tocolytic is its antagonistThere are three vasopressin receptors. They are ah G protein linked.VIAV1BV2* Acts by phosphatidyl hydrolysis* Located in area postrema, liver, spinal cord* Mediates vasoconstrictor action* Acts by phosphatidyl hydrolysis* Located in anterior pituitary to cause ACTH release* Also called V3 receptors* Neural action* Stimulates adenyl cyclase* Expressed in anterior pituitary and DCT of kidney and liver.* Antidiuretic action* Loss of this causes diabetes insipidus* Now called aquaporins and 5 types have been found aquaporin 1,2,3 found in kidney , aquaporin 4 in brain, and aquaporin 5 in lacrimal and salivary gland
Physiology
Pituitary
[ "oxytocin" ]
58,881
0304a663-3c44-424c-ba06-790dd1bb6502
Macrocytic anaemia is noted with all of the following except :
dilantin
trexall
Pyrimethamine
proquin
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate", "ciprofloxacin", "phenytoin" ]
58,899
1c3fd1b4-0e1e-46a9-9a58-93e78b35ea11
All of the following are true about therapy for tuberculosis, except -
'Flu like syndrome' is usually seen in people taking rifampicin on daily basis
myambutol accumulates in renal failure
Hyperuricemia is a recognized side effect of pyrazinamide
Red-green color impairment is an early sign of myambutol induced optic neuritis
0a
multi
Ans. is 'a' i.e.,`Flu like syndrome' is usually seen in people taking rifampicin on daily basis. o Flu like syndrome is not seen with daily dose of Rifampicin. o It results with intermittent dosing Adverse effect of Ethambutol o Ethambutol is relatively non toxic. The main adverse effect of Ethambutol is retrobulbar optic neuritis (unilateral or B/L). This causes:- Loss of visual activity Red-green colour blindness Central scotoma Peripheral vision loss. The changes reverse, if the t/t is stopped promptly if not, the patient may go blind. o Children below 6 years of age are not given ethambutol because children are unable to repo early visual deterioration. o Ethambutol also produces hyperuricemia Ethambutol in renal failure Excretion of ethambutol mainly takes place by kidney, by tubular secretion as well as by glomerular filtration therefore the dose of Ethambutol should be reduced when renal function is impaired. Dose is reduced when creatinine clearance rate is < 50m1/min to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Adverse effect of Pyrazinamide o Pyrazinamide produces hyperuricemia, hepatitis, ahralgia, fever, flushing, rashes, loss of diabetes control. Adverse effects of streptomycin Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Neuromuscular blockade.
Pharmacology
null
[ "ethambutol" ]
58,910
3a312839-be40-4bf2-9107-56bc8fa8d76d
Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly
caverject
Aspirin
advil
orapred
2c
single
Alprostadil(PGE1) and predinasolone do not inhibit cause enzyme virus transparent is an Irreversible inhibitor of this enzyme Ref-KDT 6/e p185
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "prednisolone", "ibuprofen", "alprostadil" ]
58,933
7829ed2c-3f61-4e0f-842f-51382a4bed04
A 30 year old male with NIDDM has a blood pressure of 150/90. His urine examination reveals persistent albuminuria in traces. The most appropriated line of treatment would be -
Non treatment
Regular examination of urine and monitoring of blood sugar
Administering zestril and restriction of sodium
Restriction of sodium only
2c
single
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor . ACE stands for angiotensin conveing enzyme.Lisinopril is used to treat hypeension in adults and children who are at least 6 years old. It is also used to treat congestive hea failure in adults, or to improve survival after a hea attack . A reduction in dietary salt from the current intake of 9-12 g/day to the recommended level of less than 5-6 g/day will have major beneficial effects on cardiovascular health along with major healthcare cost savings around the world. The World Health Organization (WHO) strongly recommended to reduce dietary salt intake as one of the top priority actions to tackle the global non-communicable disease crisis and has urged member nations to take action to reduce population wide dietary salt intake to decrease the number of deaths from hypeension, cardiovascular disease and stroke . Ref - pubmed.com
Medicine
Endocrinology
[ "lisinopril" ]
58,938
d089d0c0-918e-4052-a518-210b17086db4
All are side effects of clozaril EXCEPT:
Granulocytopenia
Seizures
Sedation
Extrapyramidal side effects
3d
multi
Only weak D2 blocking action, produces few /no extrapyramidal symptoms; tardive dyskinesia is rare and prolactin level does not rise. Ref KD Tripati 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
[ "clozapine" ]
58,939
250e2865-b6df-4aa0-88d9-83d69b6446ac
A 32 weeks pregnant women presents with mild uterine contraction and on examination her vitals are stable and placenta previa type III is present. Best m/n is:
Bed rest + decadron
Bed rest + adalat and decadron
Bed rest + Sedation
Immediate caesarean section
1b
single
At 32 weeks patient is presenting with uterine contraction which is a warning symptom of preterm labour. Management of patient with placenta previa and preterm labour: Tocolytic agent: “Uterine contractions are common in patients with placenta previa. Since uterine contractions have the potential to, disrupt the placental attachment and aggravate the bleeding, most obstetricians favor the use of tocolytic agents in the expectant management of patient with placenta previa”. Most commonly used tocolytics in case of placenta previa. Nifedipine Magnesium sulphate Tocolytics which are not used – Terbutaline and Ritodrine: They cause tachycardia and make the assessment of patient’s pulse rate unreliable. Indomethacin: It causes inhibition of platelet cyclo oxygenase system and prolongs the bleeding time. Besides this - patient should be: Put on bed rest in left lateral position. Glucocorticoids are given to hasten lung maturity.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[ "nifedipine", "dexamethasone" ]
58,950
db54ac22-8221-4b58-b7c1-4a5e8f8de816
An 88-year-old white woman with osteoarthritis has noticed mild epigastric discomfort for several weeks. aflaxen has helped her joint symptoms. She has emesis that resembles coffee grounds on three occasions.Select the most likely cause of gastrointestinal blood loss
Mallory-Weiss tear
Aortoenteric fistula
Gastric ulcer
Esophageal varices
2c
multi
This patients have acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which is often characterized by emesis that looks like red blood or coffee grounds. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), even over-the-counter brands, are common causes of GI bleeding. Preceding symptoms may be mild before the bleeding occurs. Cotreatment with misoprostol decreases GI bleeding but is expensive. Selective COX-2 inhibitors decrease the incidence of GI bleeding but have been shown to increase cardiovascular events and to carry the same risk of renal dysfunction, edema, and blood pressure elevation as nonselective NSAIDs.
Medicine
G.I.T.
[ "naproxen" ]
58,958
454367c2-4260-40c4-9a04-707e993d2145
appearex is a Co-enzyme for ?
Transketolase
Dehydrogenase
Oxidase
Carboxylase
3d
single
Ans. is 'd i.e., Carboxylase
Biochemistry
null
[ "biotin" ]
58,970
11575a07-bc89-49c3-b79f-0b115c10b61b
Which of the following local anaesthetic should not be alkalinized with soda bicarbonate
Lignocaine
novocaine
exparel
cepacol
2c
single
Local anaesthetic drug if dissociated –it wont act on sodium channel. So drug is kept undissociated by adding soda bicarbonate to maintain pka 7.7→ 8.2 But for bupivacaine soda bicarbonate is not used as it gets precipitated.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "procaine", "bupivacaine", "benzocaine" ]
58,980
d8c15424-0ed5-4757-81be-2758b8475def
Minimum Alveolar concentration of fluothane is
0.74%
1-2%
6%
2%
0a
single
Halothane is a potent anesthetic with a MAC of 0.74%. Its blood/gas paition coefficient of 2.4 makes it an agent with moderate induction and recovery time. It is not a good analgesic and its muscle relaxation effect is moderate.
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "halothane" ]
58,994
3d462694-f377-4a31-992d-5c4d5292607b
Which of the following antitubercular drug is not hepatotoxic:
nydrazid
Rifampicin
trecator
Streptomycin
3d
single
STREPTOMYCIN: It is the oldest aminoglycoside antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces griseus; used extensively in the past, but now practically restricted to treatment of tuberculosis. It is less potent (MICs are higher) than other aminoglycosides Adverse effects: About 1 / 5 patients given streptomycin 1 g BD i.m. experience vestibular disturbances. Auditory disturbances are less common. Streptomycin has the lowest nephrotoxicity among aminoglycosides; probably because it is not concentrated in the renal coex. Hypersensitivity reactions are rare; rashes, eosinophilia,fever and exfoliative dermatitis have been noted. .-\naphylaxis is very rare. Topical use is contraindicated for fear of contact sensitization. Superinfections are not significant. Pain at injection site is common. Paraesthesias and scotoma are occasional. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:722,723
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "isoniazid", "ethionamide" ]
59,008
cdf5b7ae-650b-426f-b4b9-0da63d6e55ae
Haemodialysis is not useful in
lanoxin
Methanol
Lithium
Salicylates
0a
single
Dialysis is mainly done for poisoning due to: Methanol Lithium Aspirin Dabigatran Dialysis is not useful in: A- Amphetamines V: Verapamil O- Opioids, OPC I: Imipramine D- Digoxin Dialysis: Diazepam
Pharmacology
Hypeension, Arrhythmias, Dyslipidemia
[ "digoxin" ]
59,009
d4a7d1a3-213a-4944-8abb-a1e35a2b3eba
Sudden withdrawal of which of the following drugs could result in serious adverse cardiovascular changes in a patient taking the drug over a long time:
nardil (MAO inhibitor)
vasotec (ACE inhibitor)
catapres (α2 agonist)
prozac (serotonin reuptake inhibitor)
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "fluoxetine", "clonidine", "phenelzine", "enalapril" ]
59,018
5e44e9de-8f9f-47a5-b4c8-c6a3f8f250a7
In cotrimoxazole, sulphamethoxazole and proloprim are in the ratio of-
2:01
1:01
5:01
1:05
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5 : 1 o Optimal synergy in case of most organism is exhibited at a concentration ratio of Sulphamethoxazole 20: Trimethoprim 1 (This ratio is obtained in plasma when two are given in a dose ratio of 5:1).
Pharmacology
null
[ "trimethoprim" ]
59,020
e6d4766d-00ab-46a0-9d85-296b8febde54
Drugs Supplied by NACO for prevention of mother to child transmission:
viramune
retrovir
viramune + retrovir
viramune + retrovir + 3tc
0a
single
NACO recommendations are for poor settings.Being inexpensive,these have immense potential in developing countries.it is also useful for those who present in labour. NACO recommendations: Nevirapine single dose of 200mg at onset of labour Nevirapine single dose of 2mg/kg to neonate within 3 days of delivery TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.305
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
[ "nevirapine", "zidovudine" ]
59,023
26adf364-b101-4682-a3d4-64fbd3bafad6
Drug of choice for Choriocarcinoma is-
Nitrosourea
Gemcitabine
trexall
Melphalan
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methotrexate o Drug of choice for brain tumors - Nitrosoureas o Drug of choice for pancreatic Ca. - Gemcitabine o Drug of choice for choriocarcinoma - Methotrexate o Drug of choice for multiple myeloma - Melphalan
Unknown
null
[ "methotrexate" ]
59,026
f991efc5-adb6-42ca-b044-c7bf2e3707e9
Best drug therapy for paranoid schizophrenia in a thinly built 21-years old young male would be-
largactil
Risperidone
Olanzapne
Quetiapne
2c
single
Clozapine and olanzapine cause weight gain → suitable drugs for thin built person.
Psychiatry
null
[ "chlorpromazine" ]
59,044
5b0d064c-23e8-42f5-8d7e-05614a063e8f
Regarding oxoject, true statements are:
Acts on myoepithelial cells of breast
Causes contraction of uterus during labour
May cause retention of water
All of these
3d
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "oxytocin" ]
59,052
af3f16f4-fbb1-4c3e-b1d0-46eb25a500e9
Drug of choice for substitution therapy in oramorph dependence -
dolophine
catapres
narcan
Nalmefene
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methadone Treatment of morphine or heroin poisoningo Treatment can be divided intoTreatment of toxicity (overdose)o Overdose is a medical emergency, and is treated with opioid antagonist to reverse the complications (respiratory depression) by antagonizing the action on opioid receptors. Intravenous naloxone is the antagonist of choince for morphine (heroin) poisoning. Oral naltrexone is used for maintenance therapy, once acute poisoning has been treated by iv naloxone. Intravenous nalmefene is another specific antagonist.Treatment of dependenceo Treatment of dependence include medically supervised withdrawal and detoxification, followed by maintenance therapy :(a) Detoxificationo Detoxification process include abrupt withdrawal of opioid followed by management of the emergent withdrawal symptoms, i.e., treatment of withdrawal syndrome. Detoxification can be done by any of the following :1 .Substitution of long-acting opioid agonism :- Methadone is the treatment of choice. Because of its agonistic activity on opioid receptors it suppresses withdrawal symptoms. L-alpha-acetyl- methadol/Levomethyl (LAAM) is the other opioid agonist which was used for this purpose. However it is no longer in use because some patients developed prolonged QT intervals (torsades de points).2. Substitution of partial agonist :- Buprenorphine can be used in place of methadone because of its partial agonistic activity on opioid receptor.3.Substitution by a2 agonists :- Clonidine acts as a sympatholytic agent due to its agonistic action on central presynaptic a, receptors which reduce nor-adrenergic activity. Therefore, clonidine reduces the adrenergic withdrawal symptoms. Lofexidine another a2 agonist, is an alternative to clonidine.4. . Clonidine plus naltrexone :- A more rapid detoxification can occur when clonidine is used along with naltrexone. Naltrexone, when given in opioid dependent patient, causes withdrawal symptoms because of its antagonistic action. These can be treated with clonidine. The addition of short acting Benzodiazepine (lorazepam or oxazepam) and NSAIDs, will help relieve withdrawlsymptoms not covered by clonidine. It should be kept in mind that naltrexone should not be used alone for detoxification (to treat withdrawl syptoms) as it precipitates or worsens the withdrawl syndrome.5.Other drugs :- Dextropropoxyphene, diphenoxylate(b) Maintenance therapyo Once detoxification phase is over (i.e., withdrawal symptoms have been managed), the patient is maintained on any of the following drugs to prevent relapse by reducing craving and preventing 'kick' or 'euphoria' produced by opioids (morphine or heroin). Drugs used are1. Methadone :- Reduces craving and 'kick/euphoria ' from morphine or heroin because their opioid receptors are already occupied.2. LAAM and buprenorphine :- Similarly reduce craving.3. Opioid antagonists (naltrexone) :- Naltrexone can be used orally to assist in the rehabilitation of ex-opioid abusers who are fully withdrawn (otherwise it induces an acute withdrawl syndrome). Naltrexone prevents relapse by discouraging substance seeking behavior -If a patient, who is on naltrexone maintenance therapy, takes an opioid, there is no 'kick' or 'euphoria' as opioid receptors are already blocked. Naltrexone can be used with clonidine as in detoxification.
Psychiatry
Opioid-Related Disorders
[ "morphine", "methadone", "naloxone", "clonidine" ]
59,053
f3d3cfa3-a13e-4e1e-b6bd-5583c4c9f33c
atrovent bromide is contraindicated in:
Asthma
Urinary retention
Hypeension
Peptic ulcer
1b
single
Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic agent which usually promote urinary retention and hence are contraindicated in cases of urinary retention. Although Ipratropium bromide is poorly absorbed into the circulation and its systemic effect (including urinary retention) are not prominent, it should still not be used when urinary retention takes place. Whereas Ipratropium bromide is indicated in cases of Bronchial Asthma, Peptic Ulcer and, Hypeension. Ref: KDT, 6th Edition, Pages 107-110 ; Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 4th Edition, Pages 97, 205
Pharmacology
null
[ "ipratropium" ]
59,067
57b32854-caae-4746-9f0a-15a0cb047a7c
simulect is a monoclonal antibody against :
IL-2 receptor
CD20
INF - α
IL-6
0a
single
Basiliximab  & Daclizumab are monoclonal antibody against IL-2 receptor (CD25) used as immunosuppresants.
Pharmacology
null
[ "basiliximab" ]
59,086
097ff282-fcbb-4b89-95b8-f2e785160c10
Which of the following increases cerebral oxygen consumption
diprivan
ketalar
Thiopentone
Alfentanyl
1b
single
Ketamine This has been discussed so many times that ketamine increases cerebral oxygen consumption. It increases the intracranial tension too. Thiopentone and propofol decrease cerebral oxygen consumption. Alfentanyl is an opioid and opioids in general reduce cerebral oxygen consumption, cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "propofol" ]
59,102
a6a83772-eebd-41fb-9979-ce70ccb9ea26
Which of the following drug is metabolized by acetylation:
dilantin
nydrazid
ventolin
Haloperidol
1b
single
Ans. (b) IsoniazidRef KDT 6th ed. / 25ACETYLATION* Compounds having amino or hydralazine residues are conjugated with the help of N-Acetyl transferase enzyme.# If acetylation is slow- its toxic# Fast acetylation- not effective or effectiveness decreases# Normal acetylation- effective* These drugs are remembered as SHIP drugs:# Sulfonamides (dapsone)# Hydralazine (anti HTN)# Isoniazid (anti TB)# Procainamide (anti-arrhythmic)* NOTE- phenytoin is an anti epileptic drug, which is always confused with procainamide in SHIP drugs. Phenytoin doesn't come under SHIP drugs.* Phenytoin hydroxylation in liver is carried out by cytochrome P 450.* SHIP drugs causes SLE.
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
[ "isoniazid", "phenytoin", "salbutamol" ]
59,104
d4f35ac5-f891-4f58-9aa4-95bd607214c3
Which of the following antimicrobial is not given in pregnancy: September 2011
Penicillin G
Quinolone
Cephalosporin
staticin
1b
single
Ans. B: Quinolone Betalactam antibiotics (penicillins and most of the cephalosporins) are safe during pregnancy Erythromycin base is safe but erythromycin estolate should be avoided Quinolones and fluoroquinolones They are chemotherapeutic bactericidal drugs, eradicating bacteria by interfering with DNA replication. Quinolones inhibit the bacterial DNA gyrase or the topoisomerase II enzyme, thereby inhibiting DNA replication and transcription. Quinolones can enter cells easily porins and, therefore, are often used to treat intracellular pathogens such as Legionella pneumophila and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. For many Gram-negative bacteria, DNA gyrase is the target, whereas topoisomerase IV is the target for many Gram-positive bacteria. Theophylline, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and coicosteroids enhance the toxicity of fluoroquinolones. Products containing multivalent cations, such as aluminum- or magnesium-containing antacids and products containing calcium, iron, or zinc, invariably result in marked reduction of oral absorption of fluoroquinolones. Many fluoroquinolones, especially ciprofloxacin, inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoform CYP1A2.This inhibition causes an increased level of, for example, antidepressants such as amitriptyline and imipramine, clozapine (an atypical antipsychotic), caffeine, olanzapine (an atypical antipsychotic). Fluoroquinolones are well tolerated, with most side effects being mild to moderate. Some of the serious adverse effects that occur more commonly with fluoroquinolones than with other antibiotic drug classes include CNS and tendon toxicity.Fluoroquinolones are sometimes associated with an QTc interval prolongation and cardiac arrhythmias, convulsions, tendon rupture, torsade de pointes and hypoglycemia. Moxifloxacin carries a higher risk of QTc prolongation Gatifloxacin has been most frequently linked to disturbed blood sugar levels, although all quinolones carry these risks. Some quinolones were withdrawn from the market because of these adverse events (for example, sparfloxacin was associated with phototoxicity and QTc prolongation, thrombocytopenia and nephritis were seen with tosufloxacin, and hepatotoxicity with trovafloxacin).Fluoroquinolones are considered high-risk antibiotics for the development of Clostridium difficile and MRSA infections. The CNS is an impoant target for fluoroquinolone-mediated neurotoxicity. Moxifloxacin came out worst among the quinolones for causing CNS toxicity. Quinolones are contraindicated if a patient has epilepsy, QT prolongation, pre-existing CNS lesions, CNS inflammation or those who have suffered a stroke.There are safety concerns of fluoroquinolone use during pregnancy and, as a result, are contraindicated except for when no other safe alternative antibiotic exists. They are also contraindicated in children due to the risks of damage to the musculoskeletal system.
Pharmacology
null
[ "erythromycin" ]
59,107
a3b00332-053e-4d72-91c5-0855eb56a7d5
The following drugs are used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction, except –
lamprene
['thalomid']
restasis
Glucocorticoids
2c
multi
null
Dental
null
[ "cyclosporine", "clofazimine", "thalidomide" ]
59,115
de58cf6b-ab97-48f2-a634-bd1631c85575
Which of the following art is a fusion inhibitor?
retrovir
Enfuvirtide
viramune
norvir
1b
single
(Refer: K. D. Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, pg no:774)
Unknown
null
[ "ritonavir", "nevirapine", "zidovudine" ]
59,141
0f858d2b-5bbf-4092-a31a-51a0542e0196
Digestion of proteins is initiated by:
Amylase
Sucrase
Chymotrypsin
digipepsin
3d
single
Enzymes catalyze the digestion of proteins There are two main classes of proteolytic digestive enzymes (proteases): Endopeptidases hydrolyze peptide bonds between specific amino acids throughout the molecule. They are the first enzymes to act, yielding a larger number of smaller fragments. - Pepsin in the gastric juice catalyzes hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to amino acids with bulky side-chains (aromatic and branched-chain amino acids and methionine). - Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, and elastase are secreted into the small intestine by the pancreas. - Trypsin catalyzes hydrolysis of lysine and arginine esters. - Chymotrypsin catalyzes hydrolysis esters of aromatic amino acids. - Elastase catalyzes hydrolysis esters of small neutral aliphatic amino acids. Exopeptidases catalyze the hydrolysis of peptide bonds, one at a time, from the ends of peptides. - Carboxypeptidases, secreted in the pancreatic juice, release amino acids from the free carboxyl terminal. - Aminopeptidases, secreted by the intestinal mucosal cells, release amino acids from the amino terminal. Dipeptidases and tripeptidases in the brush border of intestinal mucosal cells catalyze the hydrolysis of di-and tripeptides, which are not substrates for amino-and carboxypeptidases. Key Concept: Pepsin in the gastric juice catalyses hydrolysis of peptide bonds adjacent to amino acids with bulky side chains. It is the stomach where digestion of proteins is initiated with the help of pepsin.
Biochemistry
null
[ "pepsin" ]
59,157
4ffcb814-aadf-4255-a1fc-eae1ed8aa5ac
Which of the following anesthetic agent does not cause hypotension on injection?
diprivan
ketalar
fluothane
Thiopentone
1b
single
Ketamine, sold under the brand name Ketalar among others, is a medication mainly used for starting and maintaining anesthesia. It induces a trance-like state while providing pain relief, sedation, and memory loss.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "ketamine", "halothane", "propofol" ]
59,164
2a8bee2f-11bb-48a3-9e8f-9fef50ac1a42
Hemolysis in G6PD may be caused by all except
Primaquine
resochin
Pyrimethamine
qualaquin
0a
multi
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 656 Although it was primaquine (PQ) that led to the discovery of G6PD deficiency, this drug has not been very prominent subsequently, because it is not necessary for the treatment of life-threatening P. falciparum malaria. Today there is a revival of interest in PQ because it is the only effective agent for eliminating the gameto- cytes of P. falciparum (thus preventing fuher transmission) and eliminating the hypnozoites of Plasmodium vivax (thus preventing endogenous relapse). In countries aiming to eliminate malaria, there may be a call for mass administration of PQ; this ought to be associ- ated with G6PD testing. At the other end of the historic spectrum, the latest addition to the list of potentially hemolytic drugs
Anatomy
Haematology
[ "quinine", "chloroquine" ]
59,183
7e6c207e-7159-4b3f-8a53-29bb19972fed
In the treatment of hypothyroidism, synthroid is preferred over cytomel because of synthroid:
Is faster acting
Has higher affinity for thyroid hormone receptors
Has a longer half life
Can be made more easily by recombinant DNA technology
2c
single
Liothyronine (T3) as compared to thyroxine (T4) is: Fast acting More potent Short half-life An indication of liothyronine includes myxedema coma and for most of the indications, thyroxine is used because it has a long half-life thus can be used less frequently than T3.
Pharmacology
null
[ "thyroxine", "liothyronine" ]
59,185
38622566-4fdd-418f-b149-9bf82f433eb4
Theophyline levels in blood are increased by:
Barbiturates
trexall
tagamet
All of the above
2c
multi
Cimetidine
Pharmacology
null
[ "cimetidine", "methotrexate" ]
59,189
2e662bf5-fa80-49be-8561-da04128895e3
Compared to hydrocortisone, maximum glucocorticoid activity is seen in:
Cortisone
orapred
decadron
medrol
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "prednisolone", "methylprednisolone", "dexamethasone" ]
59,208
8e07cb41-29f1-44e1-9ffe-afeeaecddc92
Retrograde ejaculation is a characteristic side effect of which psychotropic medication?
Lithium carbonate
nardil
valium
Thioridazine
3d
single
Of all the antipsychotic medications, thioridazine is the only one with a strongly recommended dosage ceiling. Dosages exceeding 800 mg daily have been linked to the development of retinitis pigmentosa. Other side effects of thioridazine include ejaculatory inhibition. Although it also produces sedation, a side effect that can be of clinical value in treating agitated psychotic individuals, thioridazine causes fever extrapyramidal side effects than most other neuroleptics. Haloperidol is a widely used butyrophenone antipsychotic that can produce significant extrapyramidal side effects. However, because it is non-sedating and causes little autonomic disturbance, it is effective in low dosages in treating agitation in elderly persons. MAO inhibitors such as phenelzine are used to treat mood disorders.Persons on MAO inhibitor therapy must remain on a diet free of tyramine-containing foods (e.g., aged cheese) to avoid a potentially fatal hypeensive crisis, which can present as severe headache. Lithium carbonate is used in the treatment and prophylaxis of bipolar disorder. The dosage must be adjusted according to blood level. Side effects commonly associated with rising or mildly toxic blood levels include fine tremor of the hands, nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea. Ref: Meyer J.M. (2011). Chapter 16. Pharmacotherapy of Psychosis and Mania. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
Psychiatry
null
[ "phenelzine", "diazepam" ]
59,221
e8346604-4a53-48fc-bb4f-01879fc5ee8d
All of the following are used in pneumatosis cytoides intestinalis EXCEPT
High flow oxygen
albenza
Metronidazol
azulfidine
1b
multi
.PNEUMATOSIS CYSTOIDES INTESTINALIS -* It is transient, thin cysts containing nitrogen in submucosa and subserosa of ileum. * It is due to increased intraluminal pressure, which forces N2 through the layers of the bowel due to hyper-peristalsis. * It is associated with chronic duodenal ulcer, chronic pulmonary disease, bowel obstruction. Treatment * O2 suppo. * Metronidazole. * Cause is treated. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 806
Surgery
G.I.T
[ "albendazole", "sulfasalazine" ]
59,236
57eb603f-0f41-442a-a3b9-42eb3422657e
Drugs used in the treatment of pruritus in PBC
Rifampicin
revia
Cholestyramine
All of the above
3d
multi
.
Pathology
All India exam
[ "naltrexone" ]
59,262
057037e6-af25-40d3-885a-87e34a9a727e
Long acting dopamine agonist is:
parlodel
Lisuride
dostinex
Apomorphine
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "cabergoline", "bromocriptine" ]
59,263
e42769f2-05fe-4da1-8842-9b2dd0a54a18
Constipation is a possible side effect of drugs taken by the oral route, but it is highly unlikely to occur with the use of
benadryl
colace
phenergan
imodium
1b
single
Docusate is a stool-softening laxative that facilitates mixing of oil and water via its surfactant properties. Drugs that have muscarinic blocking effects, like scopolamine and the antihistamines diphenhydramine and promethazine, tend to cause constipation by decreasing GI motility. Loperamide is an opioid derivative, with no analgesic activity, used in the treatment of diarrheal states.
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
[ "docusate", "diphenhydramine", "promethazine", "loperamide" ]
59,270
43f38f58-7b05-4abe-a0c6-5a3d4a105768
In which of the following condition ketalar can be used:
Hypovolemia
Myocardial infarction
Hypertension
Head injury
0a
single
Ans: a (Hypovolaemia) Ref: Ajay Yadav, 2nd ed, p. 78,139,141Ketamine stimulates sympathetic system causing:TachycardiaHypertensionIV anaesthetic of choice in shock ie good for hypovolaemic patientsIV anaesthetic of choice in asthmaticsCauses dissociative anaesthesia, i.e.. a state of profound analgesia, light sleep, increased muscle tone and emergence deliriumMarked analgesia is a prominent feature and more analgesic than propofol and thiopentanone causes increased muscle tone and myalgia.It is anaesthetic of choice in skin grafting.Dissociative anaesthesia is due to excitation of limbic system and inhibition of thalamus and neocortex.pH of 10% solution is 4IV doseIM doseInfusion rateOral dose- 1 -2 mg/kg of body weight- 6-10 mg/kg- 40 microgram /kg/mt- 6 mg/kgSide effects:Increase all pressures! intracranial, intraocular, blood pressure)Post operative myalgia and myoglobinuriaHallucination and diazepam is used for treatmentIncreased salivation use atropineDrug of choiceHepatic failureRenal failureAnaesthetic agentIsoflurane/ sevofluraneIsoflurane/ sevoflurane/desflurane/ halothaneMuscle relaxantAtracurium /cisatracuriumAtnicuiium/ cisatracurium/ fentanylOpiodFentanylFentanylContraindicationNoneMethoxyflurane/ gallaminc/ enfluraneAnaesthetic of choice in:Cardiac patientsDay care surgeryIntravenous- etomidateAnaesthesia- propofol + alfentanyl + isofluraneInhalation- isofluraneOpiod- alfentanyl > fentanylMR- vecuroniumShock patient- IV ketamineAsthmatic patientNeonates and childrenIntravenous- ketamineInhalation- sevofluraneInhalation- halothaneIntravenous- thiopentoneMR- pancuronium> propofol Neurosurgical operationsAneurysm surgery-Isoflurane + thiopentone / propofolEtomidateElectroconvulsive therapy-Total intravenous anaesthesia-MethohexitoneProporfol -falfentanyl / fentanylPatient susceptible to malignant hyperthermiaControlled hypotensionInduction- propofolIsoflurane Maintenance- nitrous oxide Local anaesthesia-- procainePhaeochromocytomaEnfluraneHaemorrhagic shock- cyclopropaneEpilepticsInduction - thiopentoneMaintainence - isofluraneSkin grafting- ketamine Muscle relaxant causing histamine release (MAST)MivacuriumAtracutiumSuccinylcholineD-Tubocurarine
Anaesthesia
General Anesthesia
[ "ketamine" ]
59,283
211ad232-b745-4b50-a3dc-51f84645442d
NSAID lacking anti-inflammatory action is:
tylenol
advil
zorvolex sodium
celebrex
0a
single
Paracetamol or acetaminophen has antipyretic and analgesic activities but it lacks anti-inflammatory action. It is presumed to become inactive by peroxides generated at the site of inflammation. Some theories suggest that PCM acts on COX-3 receptors.
Pharmacology
NSAIDs, Gout and Rheumatoid Ahritis
[ "diclofenac", "paracetamol", "ibuprofen", "celecoxib" ]
59,287
569a1711-a34e-4b4b-9a5b-36ea55f6a8c9
Treatment of choice in WPW syndrome patient having an alternate pathway with high-risk propeies?
Vagal maneuver
Catheter ablation
Beta blockers
tambocor
1b
single
In Wolff-Parkinson-White patients with preexcitation who have symptoms of arrhythmia are at risk for developing atrial fibrillation and sudden death if they have an alternate pathway (AP) with high-risk propeies. An invasive electrophysiology study is warranted to determine if the AP is high enough risk to warrant potentially curative catheter ablation. Catheter ablation is warranted for recurrent arrhythmias when drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or not desired by the patient or if the AP is considered high riskHarrison 19e pg: 1483
Medicine
C.V.S
[ "flecainide" ]
59,292
301dab98-e92b-48a7-b40b-95bbe087f89b
Mode of action of prozac is -
GABA inhibition
Adrenergic neuron blocking agent
Inhibition axonal uptake of 5HT
Alpha adrenergic stimulation
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' Inhibit axonal uptake of 5HT Fluoxetine is a tricyclic antidepressant (like imipramine, Amitriptyline)While typically TCA inhibit uptake of both NA and 5HT by neurons.Fluoxetine is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)Therefore it is devoid of following side effectsAnticholinergic *Sedation*Hypotension*Other SSRIsFluvoxamine*Paroxetine*Also remember mechanism of action of these atypical TCAsTianeptine - It increase rather than inhibit 5-HT uptake *Mianserin - does not inhibit either NA or 5-HT uptake, it blocks presynaptic alpha-2 receptors, increases release and turnover of NA in brain *
Psychiatry
Drugs & Other Biological Methods of Treatment
[ "fluoxetine" ]
59,329
2188c702-1201-4d51-a23d-f79f255f3652
Drug contraindicated in bilateral renal aery stenosis
Propanolol
Guanethidine
capoten
Amilodipine
2c
single
Refer kDT 6/e p 484 Renal aery stenosis is thenarrowing of one of the renal aeries, most often caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia. This narrowing of therenal aery can impede blood flow to the target kidney, resulting in renovascular hypeension - a secondary type of high blood pressure. Angiotensin-conveing enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) arecontraindicated in patients withbilateral renal aery stenosis due to risk of azotemia resulting from preferential efferent aeriolar vasodilation in the renal glomerulus due to inhibition of angiotensin II.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
[ "captopril" ]
59,332
8728615c-a67b-42d4-adf1-0d660a282e5f
Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage
platinol
Streptozocin
sansert
Cycloohosphamide
0a
single
Refer KDT 6/e p827 Cisplatin is a highly emetic and Nephrotoxic agent Streptozocin causes destruction of beta cells of pancreas Methysergide can cause retroperitoneal fibrosis
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
[ "methysergide", "cisplatin" ]
59,346
4834cf06-014b-46d5-8b64-85134c52a430
All of the following are used in organophosphorus poisoning except
protopam
atropen
Activated charcoal
revia
3d
multi
Refer kDT 7/e p 110,111 Pharmacologic Treatment Atropine - The endpoint for atropine is dried pulmonary secretions and adequate oxygenation. Tachycardia and mydriasis must not be used to limit or to stop subsequent doses of atropine. The main concern with OP toxicity is respiratory failure from excessive airway secretions. Sta with a 1-2 mg IV bolus, repeat q3-5min prn for desire effects (drying of pulmonary secretions and adequate oxygenation). Consider doubling each subsequent dose for rapid control of patients in severe respiratory distress. An atropine drip titrated to the above endpoints can be initiated until the patient's condition is stabilized. Pralidoxime - Nucleophilic agent that reactivates the phosphorylated AChE by binding to the OP molecule. Used as an antidote to reverse muscle paralysis resulting from OP AChE pesticide poisoning but is not effective once the OP compound has bound AChE irreversibly (aged). Current recommendation is administration within 48 h of OP poisoning. Because it does not significantly relieve depression of respiratory center or decrease muscarinic effects of AChE poisoning, administer atropine concomitantly to block these effects of OP poisoning. Sta with 1-2 g (20-40 mg/kg) IV in 100 mL isotonic sodium chloride over 15-30 min; repeat in 1 h if muscle weakness is not relieved; then repeat q3-8h if signs of poisoning recur; other dosing regimens have been used, including continuous drip.
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
[ "atropine", "pralidoxime", "naltrexone" ]
59,347
a314e450-4122-4ce7-87e7-9de1f8d7ddf9
protopam is ineffective in case of which poisoning:
Organophosphorous
Carbaryl
Both of the above
None of the above
1b
multi
Carbaryl
Pharmacology
null
[ "pralidoxime" ]
59,385
816e4cf1-6a0f-4fd5-a421-482a1a207fb9
After taking some drug for acute attack of migraine, a patient developed nausea and vomiting. He also developed tingling and numbness in the tip of the finger that also turned blue. Which of the following is the most likely drug implicated in causing the above findings
Ergotamine
Aspirin
imitrex
stadol
0a
multi
Ergotamine:- Mech of action:- It acts as a paial agonist and antagonist at a adrenergic and all subtypes of 5-HT1 and 5-HT2 receptors. It produces sustained vasoconstriction(leading to Acrocyanosis), visceral smooth muscle contraction, vasomotor centre depression and antagonizes the action of NA and 5-HT on smooth muscles. It is a potent emetic (through CTZ and vomiting centre) and moderately potent oxytocic. At high doses CNS stimulation and paresthesias may be experienced. On chronic exposure (ergot poisoning) vasoconstriction is accompanied by damage to capillary endothelium--thrombosis, vascular stasis and gangrene. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-175,176
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "sumatriptan", "butorphanol" ]
59,388
ef3dd9e9-66a4-479f-aeed-f4a525f9c1f8
Wof are anti diabetic agents that acts by increasing insulin sensitivity, and so should be euglycemics
Phenformin
actos
januvia
victoza
1b
single
Thiazolidinedione (PPARg agonist) Pioglitazone:- Only one thiazolidinedione Pioglitazone is currently available. Mech of action:- This class of oral antidiabetic drugs are selective agonists for the nuclear peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor g (PPARg) which is expressed mainly in fat cells, but also in muscle and some other cells. It enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes. Glitazones tend to reverse insulin resistance by enhancing GLUT4 expression and translocation. Entry of glucose into muscle and fat is improved. Hepatic gluconeo- genesis is also suppressed. Activation of genes regulating fatty acid metabolism and lipogenesis in adipose tissue contributes to the insulin sensitizing action. Lipolysis and plasma fatty acid levels are reduced. Adipocyte turnover and differentiation is accelerated by glitazones. Thus, fatty tissue is a major site of their action. Improved glycaemic control results inlowering of circulating HbA1C and insulin levels in type 2 DM patients. Pioglitazone, in addition, lowers serum triglyceride level and raises HDL level without much change in LDL level, probably because it acts on PPARa as well to induce expression of reverse cholesterol transpoer and some apoproteins. Monotherapy with glitazones is not associated with hypoglycaemic episodes. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-276,277
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
[ "sitagliptin", "pioglitazone", "liraglutide" ]
59,402
529d656f-d8a4-4e65-b913-efe488e44457
The following patient on trexall, steroids and NSAIDs for past 4 months has had no retardation of disease progression. What is the next rational step in management?
Sta monotherapy with anti-TNF alpha drugs
Continue trexall and steroids at higher dose
Stop oral trexall and sta parenteral trexall
Add azulfidine
3d
multi
Z-line deformity, ulnar detion: RHEUMATOID AHRITIS Option A: Combination with Methotrexate, cannot be given alone. Option B: Steroids are not proved to reduce the occurrence of R.A nowadays. Steroids may lead to increase of Cushing syndrome Option C: Parenteral treatment is not recommended Combination therapy where appropriate; (3) individualization of therapy in an attempt to maximize response and minimize side effects; and (4) achieving, whenever possible, remission of clinical disease activity. A considerable amount of evidence suppos this intensive treatment approach. As mentioned earlier, methotrexate is the DMADRD of the first choice for initial treatment of moderate to severe RA. Failure to achieve adequate improvement with methotrexate therapy calls for a change in DMARD therapy, usually a transition to an effective combination regimen. Effective combination include: methotrexate, sulfasalazine, and hydroxychloroquine (oral triple therapy); methotrexate and leflunomide; and methotrexate plus a biological. The combination of methotrexate and an anti-TNF agent, for example, has been shown in randomized, controlled trails to be superior to methotrexate alone not only reducing signs and symptoms of disease, but also for retarding the progression of structural joint damage.
Medicine
NEET 2019
[ "methotrexate", "sulfasalazine" ]
59,410
86cea17b-6b3f-4cc8-9278-4f2632f7678c
A 55 year old cardiac patient who was on long-term treatment comes for follow up visit. The physician observes the following finding on ophthalmological examination. Which drug prescribed by the physician would most probably be responsible for this?
lanoxin
isoptin
cordarone
inderal
2c
single
The image shows "voex keratopathy". Here, there is a whorl-like pattern of epithelial deposits in the cornea. Causes:Drugs-Amiodarone, Chloroquine, Phenothiazines, Indomethacin Fabry's disease and its carrier stateThe whorl-like pattern shows the direction of migration of corneal epithelial cells.
Microbiology
All India exam
[ "amiodarone", "digoxin", "propranolol", "verapamil" ]
59,411
feb6d223-c84a-4167-968d-ecc8dc389eca
Which of the following is NOT an amide -
Lignocaine
novocaine
carbocaine
rectacaine
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Procaine Local Anaesthetics|||AmidesEstersLidocaineBupivacaineDibucaine (cinchocain)PrilocaineRopivacaineCocaineProcaineChloroprocaineTetracaine (Amethocain)BenzocaineAdvantages of amides over esters:o Produces more intense and longer lasting anaesthesiao Cause less hypersensitivity reactionso Produce longer lasting anaesthesia as they are not hydrolysed by esterasesRemembero Amide LAs bind to a1 acid glycoprotein, while ester LAs do not bind to plasma protein.o Ester LAs can antagonize the action of sulfonamide due to PABA residue.
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous (Local and Regional Anesthesia)
[ "mepivacaine", "procaine", "dibucaine" ]
59,423
92d1805f-33ee-438f-943f-bb169aa89ff4
Which one of the following is not a cause for hyperkalemia :
lanoxin
Potassium sparing diuretic
Renin angiotensin system blockers
restasis
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "digoxin", "cyclosporine" ]
59,425
d40c0641-15b4-4a93-ae4f-e7efa01be195
The best approach to prevent cholera epidemic in a community is
Mass chemoprophylaxis with panmycin
Vaccination of all individuals
Health education
Safe water and sanitation
2c
multi
• Pattenkoffer advocated for improving local sanitary conditions as ‘the best way to prevent or stop cholera epidemics.’ • Robert Koch believed that quarantine and disinfection can only prevent cholera.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
[ "tetracycline" ]
59,426
e7f270f3-698d-4f72-b59c-ccdfa89a3d0c
Which of the following drugs cause oligospermia?
Leflunomide
D-Penidillamine
trexall
azulfidine
3d
single
It is a compound of sulfapyridine and S-amino salicylic acid (5-ASA); has anti-inflammatory activity and is primarily used in ulcerative colitis. Sulfapyridine split off in the colon by bacterial action and absorbed systemically appears to be the active moiety. Generation of superoxide radicals and cytokine elaboration by inflammatory cells may be suppressed. Efficacy of sulfasalazine in RA is modest and side effects are few, but neutropenia/thrombocytopenia occurs in about 10% patients and hepatitis is possible. It is used as a second line drug for milder cases. Free radicles can cause oligospermia Dose: 1-3 g/day in 2-3 divided doses ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION; KD TRIPATHI; PAGE NO 211
Pharmacology
Autacoids
[ "methotrexate", "sulfasalazine" ]
59,437
3972ba9a-afe3-487d-973a-6cb768d4b423
Which of the following is longest acting ocular Beta blocker
blocadren
Betaxolol
Caiolol
betaloc
1b
single
Ref-KDT 6/e p145 Betaxolol is a cardioselective Beta blocker useful in glaucoma. It is longer acting than timolol. Another non selective Beta blocker used topically for the treatment of glaucoma is levobunolol
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
[ "metoprolol", "timolol" ]
59,449
f8629855-c1b1-4339-8da6-55f16a9e2f0c
All of the following can aggravate Myasthenia gravis except
imuran
d-Tubocurarine
panmycin
Aminoglycoside
0a
multi
Essentials of medical pharmacology, seventh edition, page no 864, Answer is option 1, Azathioprine This antipurine acts by getting conveed to 6-MP,but has more prominent immunosuppresant action. It mainly supresses cell mediated iimmunity and is mainly used in autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid ahritis, myasthenia gravis, ulcerative collitis etc.
Pharmacology
Anesthesia
[ "azathioprine", "tetracycline" ]
59,461
0f9244f6-c2b7-4753-b276-190e27738213
45 year old woman is posted for elective incisional hernia repair. On reviewing her history, she is known hypertensive patient for the past 10 years on regular capoten. What is your concern for the patient
Stopping capoten a day before surgery
Continue the medication till the day of surgery
Stop a week priorly and start on norvasc
Stop capoten a week before surgery and give when necessary.
1b
single
Antihypertensive medications need not be stopped prior to surgery.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "captopril", "amlodipine" ]
59,464
1b600a86-057a-4bfe-aabb-d0fdb1c3732f
Side effects of nydrazid are all EXCEPT ?
Hepatitis
Optic neuritis
Peripheral Neuropathy
Thrombocytopenia
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thrombocytopenia Adverse effects of INH -Peripheral neuritis (most common), hepatitis, optic neuritis & atrophy, seizure, ataxia, muscle twitching, toxic encephalopathy, psychoses, rashes, fever, ahralgia, acne, lupus like syndrome, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency. Note: Most common antitubercular drug which is implicated in causing peripheral neuropathy is INH.
Pharmacology
null
[ "isoniazid" ]
59,472
61cfde90-71e8-45d8-b8bd-9067480af53e
Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?
brevibloc
apresoline
Mephentermine
Sodium nitropress
2c
single
Mephenteramine is an indirect acting sympathomimetic drug. It is used to treat the hypotension induced by ganglion blockers or spinal anaesthesia. Therefore not used to induce hypotension. Esmolol, hydralazine and sodium nitroprusside are commonly used agents to provide induced hypotension during surgery. Cerebral blood flow remains constant in an intact brain over a mean aerial blood pressure range 50-150mmHg. Induced hypotension is employed to reduce blood loss. Ref: Textbook of Neurosurgery By Prakash Narain Tandon, Volume 1, Page 927; Medical Toxicology By Richard C. Da, 3rd Edition, Page 551.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "nitroprusside", "hydralazine", "esmolol" ]
59,489
6fbc613c-66ad-43c7-8a4f-10b05b33b259
DOC for Bacterial vaginosis in a pregnant female:
cleocin
flagyl
staticin
diflucan
1b
single
Ans. (B) MetronidazoleMetronidazole, tinidazole and clindamycin are preferred antibiotics for treatment of bacterial vaginosis; however the single best drug of choice is metronidazole.First lineSecond line* Metronidazole (DOC) 500 mg orally BD for 7 days* Metronidazole gel 0.75% 5 gm intravaginally once a day for 5 days* Clindamycin cream 2% 5 gm intravaginally once a day for 7 days* Tinidazole 2 gm orally OD FOR 2 days* Tinidazole 1 gm orally OD for 5 days* Clindamycin 300 mg orally BD for 7 days* Clindamycin ovules 100 mg OD intravaginally for 3 daysExtra MileInfectious Vulvovaginitis Bacterial vaginosisCandidiasisTrichomonas vaginitisComplaintOrder increased after intercourse and/or mensesNote: No inflammation-hence no itchingItching, burning, dischargeFrothy discharge, odor, dysuria, pruritis, spottingMC organismAlteration of vaginal flora; lactobacilli decrease whereas coccobacilli and Gardnerella increaseCandida albicans > Candida galbrata > Candida tropicalisTrichomonas vaginalisMCOverall: Most common vaginitisM/C vaginitis in:* Pregnancy, diabetes* Immunocompromised* OCP users, steroid users, antibiotic users DischargeThin, gray or white adherent, often increasedWhite, curdy "Cottage cheese" dischargeInflammation "Strawberry cervix" Yellow-green foul smelling dischargeKOH "whiff test"+-+-Vaginal pH>4.5<4.5>4.5 (5-6)Gold standard investigation Gram stain: on gram staining Nugent scoring is done-The Nugent score is calculated by assessing the presence of lactobacillus (Gram +ve rods-scored as 0 to 4), Gardnerella vaginalis (scored as 0 to 4) and mobilincus (Gram variable rods-scored as 0-2) A score of >=7 is consistent with bacterial vaginosisCulture on sabouraud'smedium or NickersonmediumCulture on --Feinberg Whittington media or Diamond mediaT/t = Non pregnant femalesMetronidazole (500 mg BD x 7 days) orClindamycinAzole group of antifungals Like fluconazole/miconazole which can be applied topically or given orally (150 mg, single dose)Metronidazole(2 gm single dose oral)Pregnancy = DOCMetronidazole (250 mg TDS x 7 days)To be avoided in first trimesterTopical azole antifungalsTo be avoided in first trimesterMetronidazole(250 mg TDS x 7 days)Simultaneous treatment of male partnerNot needed as BV is not an STDIf partner has symptoms then treatment neededAlways done as Trichomonas vaginalis is an STDMicroscopic findingsSaline wet prep'Clue cells', bacterial clumps10% KOH solution wet prep Pseudohyphae and bud seenSaline wet prepMotile pear-shaped trichomonadsVulvovaginitis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Pharmacotherapeutic in Obstetrics
[ "metronidazole", "fluconazole", "erythromycin", "clindamycin" ]
59,498
ed0ac8b7-2bd9-4f63-9330-66cd1247e60e
Agents used for anaesthesia are generally metabolized by liver and eliminated by kidney. Which of the following anaesthetic agent is NOT metabolized by body?
N2O
flaxedil
ultane
fluothane
0a
multi
Nitrous oxide (N2O; laughing gas) is the only inorganic anesthetic gas in clinical use. There is no change with blood pressure, hea rate, systemic vascular resistance, and cardiac output. Respiratory tidal volume decreases but respiratory rate is increased. By increasing CBF and cerebral blood volume, nitrous oxide produces a mild elevation of intracranial pressure. Nitrous oxide also increases cerebral oxygen consumption (CMRO2). Nitrous oxide appears to decrease renal blood flow by increasing renal vascular resistance. This leads to a drop in glomerular filtration rate and urinary output. During emergence, almost all nitrous oxide is eliminated by exhalation. Ref: Morgan, Jr. G.E., Mikhail M.S., Murray M.J. (2006). Chapter 7. Inhalation Anesthetics. In G.E. Morgan, Jr., M.S. Mikhail, M.J. Murray (Eds), Clinical Anesthesiology, 4e.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "sevoflurane", "halothane", "gallamine" ]
59,534
82811ce4-d4fa-4ce2-b5cc-78f6b8770261
A 50 year old man with advanced tuberculosis has developed signs of severe acute adrenal insufficiency. The patient should be treated immediately with a combination of:
Aldosterone and fludrocoisone
kenalog and decadron
Coisol and fludrocoisone
decadron and metopirone
2c
single
Patient should be given both mineralocoicoids as well as glucocoicoid. - Aldosterone and Fludrocoisone both are mineralocoicoids. -Highest mineralocoicoid activity is seen with Aldosterone - Triamcinolone and Dexamethasone both are glucocoicoids. - Coisol is glucocoicoid and Fludrocoisone is a mineralocoicoid. - Dexamethasone is a glucocoicoid whereas Metyrapone is anti-glucocoiocid.
Pharmacology
Adrenal
[ "triamcinolone", "metyrapone", "dexamethasone" ]
59,548
05a2eb67-5270-4248-9af2-647e96b36202
A 75 years female patient with fracture neck of femur 1 month hack, presents with 2 days history of altered sensorium & decreased urine output. Urea is 140 mg/dl, creatinine is 2 mg/dl, Ca is 15.5 mg/dl. All of will be useful in immediate treatment except
Give NS
lasix
Hemodialysis
Bisphosphonates
1b
multi
Furosemide Initial therapy of severe hypercalcemia includes the simultaneous administration of saline, calcitonin and a biphosphonate. Isotonic saline Isotonic saline corrects possible volume depletion due to hypercal- cemia induced urinary salt wasting and in some cases vomiting. Hypovolemia exacerbates hypercalcemia by impairing the renal clearance of calcium. - The rate of saline infusion depends upon several factors including the severity of hypercalcemia, the age of the patient and the presence of comorhid conditions paicularly underlying cardiac or renal disease. - A reasonable regimen in the absence of edema is the administration of isotonic saline at an initial rate of 200-300 ml/h that is then adjusted to maintain the urine output at 100-150 ml/h, - Saline therapy requires careful monitoring since it can lead to fluid overload in patients who cannot excrete the administered salt because of impaired renal function which can be induced by hypercalcemia or hea failure. - The saline infusion should be stopped in patients who develop edema and a loop diuretic may be necessary. Saline therapy rarely normalizes the serum calcium concentration in patients with more than mild hypercalcemia. Saline therapy beyond that necessary to restore euvolemia has fallen out of our for two reasons: - The availability of drugs such as biphosphonates and calcitonin that inhibit bone resorption which is primarily responsible .for hypercalcemia. - The requirement for careful monitoring because of potential fluid and electrolyte complications resulting .from a massive saline infusion and furosemide induced diuresis such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia and volume depletion if the diuretic induced losses are not replaced. Furosemide in hypercalcemia In the past administration of loop diuretic was initiated routinely once fluid repletion had been achieved to fuher increase urinary calcium excretion. - However this practice was based upon an approach that involved intensive administration of furosemide (80-100 mg every one to two hours) with aggressive fluid hydration. - In the patients with hypercalcemia receiving saline hydration, routinely using a loop diuretic is not suggested. However in individuals with renal insufficiency or hea failure, careful monitoring and judicious use of loop diuretics may be required to prevent. fluid overload. - In the absence of renal failure or hea failure, loop diuretic therapy to directly increase calcium excretion is not recommended because of potential complications and the availability of drugs that inhibit bone resorption. William's Endocrinology on I.V. furosemide in hypercalcemia Use of furosemide or other potent loop diuretics to promote calciuresis can exacerbate extracellular volume depletion if used too early in the course of treatment. In the light of availability of highly effective alternatives for the therapy of hypercalcemia such drugs probably are best avoided except in circumstances in which rigorous hydration fails to improve severe hypercalcemia or might ppt precipitase C.H. F.. In any case prolonged use of saline induced dieresis without early introduction of an effective antiresorptive agent is ill advised and ultimately futile. Concurrent treatment with biphosphonates with or without calcitonin is typically required to treat moderate to severe hypercalcemia. Calcitonin Pharmacological doses of serum calcitonin reduce the serum calcium concentration by increasing renal calcium excretion and, more impoantly by decreasing bone resorption interference with osteoclast maturation. - Calcitonin is relatively safe and nontoxic although a relatively weak agent, it works rapidly, lowering the serum calciwn concentration by maximum of 1-2 mg/dl beginning within, four to six hours. Thus it is useful in combination with hydration .for the initial management of severe hypercalcemia. The efficacy of calcitonin is limited to the first 48 hours even with repeated doses, indicating the development of tachyphylaxis, perhaps due to receptor downregulation. - Because of its limited duration of effect, calcitonin is most beneficial in symptomatic patients with calcium >14 mg/L when combined with hydration and biphosphonates. Calcitonin and hydration provide a rapid reduction in serum calcium concentration while a biphosphonate provides a more sustained effo. Biphosphonates - The biphosphonates are nonhydrolyzable analogues of inorganic pyrophosphate that adsorb to the surface of bone hydroxyapatite and inhibits calcium release by interfering with osteoclast mediated bone resorption. They are effective in treating the hypercalcemia resulting ,from excess of any cause. All of the biphosphonates are relatively nontoxic compounds and they are more potent than calcitonin and saline .for patients with moderate or severe hypercalcemia. As a result, they have became the preferred agents for management of hypercalcemia due to excessive bone resorption from a variety of causes. -Their maximum effifct occurs in two to four days so that they are usually given in conjunction with saline / calcitonin which reduce serum calcium concentration more rapidly. Biphosphonates in renal impairment "Biphosphonates have potential nephrotoxicity. But this does not mean that they are completely avoided in patients with renal failure" In clinical trials of zolindronate for the treatment of hypercalcemia, patients with serum creatinine concentration as high as 4.5 mg/d1 were eligibile for paicipation. In addition there are case repos of successful use of ibandronate and pamidronate in patients with renal failure and multiple myeloma, renal insufficiency (creatinine 2 1.5 mg/dl) and in hemodialysis patients with severe hypercalcemia. - However caution is suggested when using intravenous to treat hypercalcemia in patients with impaired renal function (creatinine > 4.5 mg/dl). - Adequate hydration with saline and t/t with a reduced dosage and/or slower infusion rate (4 mg Z4 over 30-60 minutes, 30-45 mg pamidronate over 4 hours, 2 mg ibandronate over one hour / ?nay minimize risk). Dialysis -Hemodialysis with little or no calcium in the dialysis fluid and peritoneal dialysis (though it is slower) are both effective therapies for hypercalcemia and are considered tit of last reso. - Dialysis may be indicated in patients with severe malignancy associated hypercalcemia and renal insufficiency or hea, failure, in whom hydration cannot be safely administered. - The use of hypercalcemia in patients with without renal failure may require alterations in the composition of conventional dialysis solutions in order to avoid an exacerbation or induction of other metabolic abnormalities, paicularly hypophosphatemia.
Surgery
null
[ "furosemide" ]
59,554
8b5b65aa-ffb3-45db-85b6-72399f043296
The most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic is:
Lignocaine
exparel
Prilocaine
novocaine
1b
single
Bupivacaine is the most cardiotoxic and long acting amides. Inadveent injection of intravenous bupivacaine has been associated with frequent cardiotoxic reactions; ventricular tachycardia, fibrillation, and cardiac arrest. This is the main drawback of bupivacaine and for this reason bupivacaine is no longer used for intravenous regional anaesthesia. It is contraindicated in IV anesthesia due to cardiotoxicity.
Anaesthesia
null
[ "procaine", "bupivacaine" ]
59,577
f5819104-8ddc-4102-b303-0fab5f583cb9
An old man has enlarged prostate. Which of the following may be use to suppress his prostatic growth:
carospir
extina
Finasteride
eulexin
2c
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "flutamide", "spironolactone", "ketoconazole" ]
59,598
131f9564-e6d1-4555-ad00-9f109e13d223
['thalomid'] was once used for treating emesis of pregnancy. Later it was withdrawn from market due to side effects. But it was reintroduced for certain indications like multiple myeloma. All of the following are side effects of ['thalomid'] except :
Hypothyroidism
Diarrhea
Teratogenicity
Deep Vein Thrombosis
1b
multi
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "thalidomide" ]
59,612
ad931c0b-5a31-40aa-a69e-fc3824b0d690
Prophaylaxis for malaria not used -
vibramycin
Aesunate
resochin
lariam
1b
single
Drugs for chemoprophylaxis of malaria include Chloroquine Proguanil Mefloquine Doxycycline Reference : Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 285
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
[ "chloroquine", "mefloquine", "doxycycline" ]
59,614
3f37b840-2abd-4048-bd25-dfcddb5fbf7d
A patient on treatment for leukemia, develops chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates and pleural effusion. The likely cause is -
Daunorubicin
Hydroxyurea
cytosar
Tretinoin
3d
single
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tretinoin o Tretinoin causes chest pain, pleuritis, pulmonary infiltrates and pleural effusion. It is a known human teratogen. Daunorubicin and doxorubicin cause cardiotoxicity manifested as arrhythmias and CHF.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cytarabine" ]
59,619
14355d9f-4b6b-428e-ae5f-1c3714f1152e
Antiandrogen is -
mifeprex
serophene citrate
eulexin
nolvadex
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Flutamide
Pharmacology
null
[ "clomiphene", "flutamide", "mifepristone", "tamoxifen" ]
59,620
e523a1a0-d0d4-46cc-b00e-dce65d87671e
Bull's eye maculopathy is an adverse effect caused by
resochin
Lumefantrine
qualaquin
Primaquine
0a
single
Bull's eye maculopathy It is a rare dystrophy, also known asbenign concentric annular macular dystrophy (BCAMD). It causes a daboard, or ring-shaped, pattern of damage around the macula. It can be caused bychloroquineorhydroxychloroquine Side effects of antimalarial drugs Chloroquine (4-aminoquinoline) - Bull's eye maculopathy,confusion,psychosis,agranulocytosis. Primaquine (8-aminoquinoline ) - hemolytic anaemia in G6PD deficiency,leukopenia,agranulocytosis,leukocytosis,cardiac arrhythmias. Quinine - Cinchonism (constellation of symptoms:tinnitus,headache,nausea,dizziness,flushing,visual disturbances. Tafenoquine (8-aminoquinoline) - Hemolysis in G-6PD Def Pt
Pharmacology
Anti-Malaria Drugs
[ "quinine", "chloroquine" ]
59,631
d7d5c188-26ee-4e55-81a1-59e9a4e1a925
Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent?
fluothane
isoflo
Ether
Sevofluron
3d
single
Blood-gas paition coefficient, also known as Ostwald coefficient for blood-gas, is a term used in pharmacology to describe the solubility of inhaled general anesthetics in blood. The coefficient is defined as the ratio of the concentration in blood to the concentration in gas that is in contact with that blood when the paial pressure in both compaments is equal. It is inversely propoional to the induction rate. It determines the onset of induction and recovery. anesthetic blood gas solubility Nitrous oxide 0.47 Halothane 2.4 Isoflurane 1.4 Sevoflurane 0.65 Desflurane 0.45 Methoxyflurane 12 Enflurane 1.9 Newer anesthetics (such as desflurane) typically have smaller blood-gas paition coefficients than older ones (such as ether); these are preferred because they lead to faster onset of anesthesia and faster emergence from anesthesia once application of the anesthetic is stopped.
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
[ "isoflurane", "halothane" ]
59,633
d5d89c48-53e6-43cb-90cf-92eb95c561b1
Which is the most active single chemotherapeutic agent in the treatment of leiomyosarcoma ?
Adriamycin
Daunorubicin
trexall
platinol
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
[ "methotrexate", "adriamycin", "cisplatin" ]
59,645
3d1f8803-aa00-416d-9010-2e95d4e31c7b
Active form of Vitamin D3 is:
calcijex
Calciferol
Calcidiol
drisdol
0a
single
Ans. A CalcitriolRef: Ganong, 25th ed. pg. 378The active metabolite of vitamin D3 is produced in kidney and is called calcitriol or 1,25 dihyroxycholecalciferol. The cells of proximal convoluted tubule produce an enzyme by name of 1 alpha hydroxylase that converts 25 hydroxycholecalciferol into 1,25 dihyroxycholecalciferol.
Physiology
Endocrinology metabolism
[ "calcitriol", "ergocalciferol" ]
59,673
b21cc93a-fdab-45a2-ae58-a03e1c93ea04
cuprimine is commonly used in the management of following heavy metal poisoning except
Arsenic
Copper
Lead
Mercury
0a
multi
null
Medicine
null
[ "penicillamine" ]
59,676
266db90b-9a85-49b5-86b4-d659c4759d0f
Toxic dose of xylocaine causes
Increase salivation
Mydriasis and diarrhea
Respiratory paralysis
Seizures
3d
single
Lignocaine reaching bloodstream causes severe CNS stimulation followed by coma.Ref:KDT 6/e p356.
Pharmacology
All India exam
[ "lidocaine" ]
59,682
f73241fa-afba-4c8a-9323-22a9f75b867a
Cephalosporin that does not require dose reduction in patient with any degree of renal impairment is?
Cefuroxime
cefobid
fortaz
claforan
1b
single
Ceftriaxone and cefoperazone are excreted mainly in the bile, therefore do not require dose reduction in any grade of renal failure.
Pharmacology
null
[ "cefotaxime", "ceftazidime", "cefoperazone" ]
59,683