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Phase I trial of dovitinib (TKI258) in recurrent glioblastoma. PURPOSE: Dovitinib (TKI258) is an oral multi-tyrosine kinase inhibitor of FGFR, VEGFR, PDGFR β, and c-Kit. Since dovitinib is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and targets brain tumor-relevant pathways, we conducted a phase I trial to demonstrate its safety in recurrent glioblastoma (GBM). PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with first or second GBM recurrence started treatment with the maximal tolerated dose (MTD) previously established in systemic cancer patients (500 mg/d, 5 days on/2 days off). A modified 3 + 3 design in three cohorts (500, 400, 300 mg) was used. RESULTS: Twelve patients were enrolled. Seventy-two adverse events (AEs) occurred and 16.7 % of AEs were classified as > CTC grade 3 toxicity, mainly including hepatotoxicity and hematotoxicity. Only one out of six patients of the 300-mg cohort showed grade 3 toxicity. The PFS-6 rate was 16.7 %, and it was not associated with detection of the FGFR-TACC gene fusion in the tumor. CONCLUSION: Dovitinib is safe in patients with recurrent GBM and showed efficacy in only some patients unselected for target expression. The recommended phase II dose of 300 mg would be substantially lower than the recently established MTD in systemic cancer patients. Further personalized trials are recommended.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_018
{ "answer_start": [ 137 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Phase I trial of dovitinib (TKI258) in recurrent glioblastoma. PURPOSE: Dovitinib (TKI258) is an oral multi-tyrosine kinase inhibitor of FGFR, VEGFR, PDGFR β, and c-Kit. Since dovitinib is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and targets brain tumor-relevant pathways, we conducted a phase I trial to demonstrate its safety in recurrent glioblastoma (GBM). PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with first or second GBM recurrence started treatment with the maximal tolerated dose (MTD) previously established in systemic cancer patients (500 mg/d, 5 days on/2 days off). A modified 3 + 3 design in three cohorts (500, 400, 300 mg) was used. RESULTS: Twelve patients were enrolled. Seventy-two adverse events (AEs) occurred and 16.7 % of AEs were classified as > CTC grade 3 toxicity, mainly including hepatotoxicity and hematotoxicity. Only one out of six patients of the 300-mg cohort showed grade 3 toxicity. The PFS-6 rate was 16.7 %, and it was not associated with detection of the FGFR-TACC gene fusion in the tumor. CONCLUSION: Dovitinib is safe in patients with recurrent GBM and showed efficacy in only some patients unselected for target expression. The recommended phase II dose of 300 mg would be substantially lower than the recently established MTD in systemic cancer patients. Further personalized trials are recommended.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_019
{ "answer_start": [ 150 ], "text": [ "PDGFR" ] }
Phase I trial of dovitinib (TKI258) in recurrent glioblastoma. PURPOSE: Dovitinib (TKI258) is an oral multi-tyrosine kinase inhibitor of FGFR, VEGFR, PDGFR β, and c-Kit. Since dovitinib is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and targets brain tumor-relevant pathways, we conducted a phase I trial to demonstrate its safety in recurrent glioblastoma (GBM). PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients with first or second GBM recurrence started treatment with the maximal tolerated dose (MTD) previously established in systemic cancer patients (500 mg/d, 5 days on/2 days off). A modified 3 + 3 design in three cohorts (500, 400, 300 mg) was used. RESULTS: Twelve patients were enrolled. Seventy-two adverse events (AEs) occurred and 16.7 % of AEs were classified as > CTC grade 3 toxicity, mainly including hepatotoxicity and hematotoxicity. Only one out of six patients of the 300-mg cohort showed grade 3 toxicity. The PFS-6 rate was 16.7 %, and it was not associated with detection of the FGFR-TACC gene fusion in the tumor. CONCLUSION: Dovitinib is safe in patients with recurrent GBM and showed efficacy in only some patients unselected for target expression. The recommended phase II dose of 300 mg would be substantially lower than the recently established MTD in systemic cancer patients. Further personalized trials are recommended.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_020
{ "answer_start": [ 165 ], "text": [ "Kit" ] }
Antitumor effect of FGFR inhibitors on a novel cholangiocarcinoma patient derived xenograft mouse model endogenously expressing an FGFR2-CCDC6 fusion protein. Cholangiocarcinoma is a highly lethal cancer with limited therapeutic options. Recent genomic analysis of cholangiocarcinoma has revealed the presence of fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) fusion proteins in up to 13% of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (iCCA). FGFR fusions have been identified as a novel oncogenic and druggable target in a number of cancers. In this study, we established a novel cholangiocarcinoma patient derived xenograft (PDX) mouse model bearing an FGFR2-CCDC6 fusion protein from a metastatic lung nodule of an iCCA patient. Using this PDX model, we confirmed the ability of the FGFR inhibitors, ponatinib, dovitinib and BGJ398, to modulate FGFR signaling, inhibit cell proliferation and induce cell apoptosis in cholangiocarcinoma tumors harboring FGFR2 fusions. In addition, BGJ398 appeared to be superior in potency to ponatinib and dovitinib in this model. Our findings provide a strong rationale for the investigation of FGFR inhibitors, particularly BGJ398, as a therapeutic option for cholangiocarcinoma patients harboring FGFR2 fusions.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_021
{ "answer_start": [ 772 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Antitumor effect of FGFR inhibitors on a novel cholangiocarcinoma patient derived xenograft mouse model endogenously expressing an FGFR2-CCDC6 fusion protein. Cholangiocarcinoma is a highly lethal cancer with limited therapeutic options. Recent genomic analysis of cholangiocarcinoma has revealed the presence of fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) fusion proteins in up to 13% of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (iCCA). FGFR fusions have been identified as a novel oncogenic and druggable target in a number of cancers. In this study, we established a novel cholangiocarcinoma patient derived xenograft (PDX) mouse model bearing an FGFR2-CCDC6 fusion protein from a metastatic lung nodule of an iCCA patient. Using this PDX model, we confirmed the ability of the FGFR inhibitors, ponatinib, dovitinib and BGJ398, to modulate FGFR signaling, inhibit cell proliferation and induce cell apoptosis in cholangiocarcinoma tumors harboring FGFR2 fusions. In addition, BGJ398 appeared to be superior in potency to ponatinib and dovitinib in this model. Our findings provide a strong rationale for the investigation of FGFR inhibitors, particularly BGJ398, as a therapeutic option for cholangiocarcinoma patients harboring FGFR2 fusions.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_022
{ "answer_start": [ 834 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Antitumor effect of FGFR inhibitors on a novel cholangiocarcinoma patient derived xenograft mouse model endogenously expressing an FGFR2-CCDC6 fusion protein. Cholangiocarcinoma is a highly lethal cancer with limited therapeutic options. Recent genomic analysis of cholangiocarcinoma has revealed the presence of fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) fusion proteins in up to 13% of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (iCCA). FGFR fusions have been identified as a novel oncogenic and druggable target in a number of cancers. In this study, we established a novel cholangiocarcinoma patient derived xenograft (PDX) mouse model bearing an FGFR2-CCDC6 fusion protein from a metastatic lung nodule of an iCCA patient. Using this PDX model, we confirmed the ability of the FGFR inhibitors, ponatinib, dovitinib and BGJ398, to modulate FGFR signaling, inhibit cell proliferation and induce cell apoptosis in cholangiocarcinoma tumors harboring FGFR2 fusions. In addition, BGJ398 appeared to be superior in potency to ponatinib and dovitinib in this model. Our findings provide a strong rationale for the investigation of FGFR inhibitors, particularly BGJ398, as a therapeutic option for cholangiocarcinoma patients harboring FGFR2 fusions.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_023
{ "answer_start": [ 942 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Randomized, open-label phase 2 study comparing frontline dovitinib versus sorafenib in patients with advanced hepatocellular carcinoma. UNLABELLED: Angiogenesis inhibition by the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) inhibitor sorafenib provides survival benefit in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC); however, angiogenic escape from sorafenib may occur due to angiogenesis-associated fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) pathway activation. In addition to VEGFR and PDGFR, dovitinib inhibits FGFR. Frontline oral dovitinib (500 mg/day, 5 days on, 2 days off; n = 82) versus sorafenib (400 mg twice daily; n = 83) was evaluated in an open-label, randomized phase 2 study of Asian-Pacific patients with advanced HCC. The primary and key secondary endpoints were overall survival (OS) and time to tumor progression (TTP) as determined by a local investigator, respectively. Patients included in the study were ineligible for surgical and/or locoregional therapies or had disease progression after receiving these therapies. The median OS (95% confidence interval [CI]) was 8.0 (6.6-9.1) months for dovitinib and 8.4 (5.4-11.3) months for sorafenib. The median TTP (95% CI) per investigator assessment was 4.1 (2.8-4.2) months and 4.1 (2.8-4.3) months for dovitinib and sorafenib, respectively. Common any-cause adverse events included diarrhea (62%), decreased appetite (43%), nausea (41%), vomiting (41%), fatigue (35%), rash (34%), and pyrexia (30%) for dovitinib and palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia syndrome (66%) and decreased appetite (31%) for sorafenib. Subgroup analysis revealed a significantly higher median OS for patients in the dovitinib arm who had baseline plasma soluble VEGFR1 (sVEGFR1) and hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) below median levels versus at or above the median levels (median OS [95% CI]: sVEGFR1, 11.2 [9.0-13.8] and 5.7 [4.3-7.0] months, respectively [P = .0002]; HGF, 11.2 [8.9-13.8] and 5.9 [5.0-7.6] months, respectively [P = 0.0002]). CONCLUSION: Dovitinib was well tolerated, but activity was not greater than sorafenib as a frontline systemic therapy for HCC. Based on these data, no subsequent phase 3 study has been planned. (Hepatology 2016;64:774-784).
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_024
{ "answer_start": [ 523 ], "text": [ "VEGFR" ] }
Randomized, open-label phase 2 study comparing frontline dovitinib versus sorafenib in patients with advanced hepatocellular carcinoma. UNLABELLED: Angiogenesis inhibition by the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) inhibitor sorafenib provides survival benefit in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC); however, angiogenic escape from sorafenib may occur due to angiogenesis-associated fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) pathway activation. In addition to VEGFR and PDGFR, dovitinib inhibits FGFR. Frontline oral dovitinib (500 mg/day, 5 days on, 2 days off; n = 82) versus sorafenib (400 mg twice daily; n = 83) was evaluated in an open-label, randomized phase 2 study of Asian-Pacific patients with advanced HCC. The primary and key secondary endpoints were overall survival (OS) and time to tumor progression (TTP) as determined by a local investigator, respectively. Patients included in the study were ineligible for surgical and/or locoregional therapies or had disease progression after receiving these therapies. The median OS (95% confidence interval [CI]) was 8.0 (6.6-9.1) months for dovitinib and 8.4 (5.4-11.3) months for sorafenib. The median TTP (95% CI) per investigator assessment was 4.1 (2.8-4.2) months and 4.1 (2.8-4.3) months for dovitinib and sorafenib, respectively. Common any-cause adverse events included diarrhea (62%), decreased appetite (43%), nausea (41%), vomiting (41%), fatigue (35%), rash (34%), and pyrexia (30%) for dovitinib and palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia syndrome (66%) and decreased appetite (31%) for sorafenib. Subgroup analysis revealed a significantly higher median OS for patients in the dovitinib arm who had baseline plasma soluble VEGFR1 (sVEGFR1) and hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) below median levels versus at or above the median levels (median OS [95% CI]: sVEGFR1, 11.2 [9.0-13.8] and 5.7 [4.3-7.0] months, respectively [P = .0002]; HGF, 11.2 [8.9-13.8] and 5.9 [5.0-7.6] months, respectively [P = 0.0002]). CONCLUSION: Dovitinib was well tolerated, but activity was not greater than sorafenib as a frontline systemic therapy for HCC. Based on these data, no subsequent phase 3 study has been planned. (Hepatology 2016;64:774-784).
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_025
{ "answer_start": [ 559 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Randomized, open-label phase 2 study comparing frontline dovitinib versus sorafenib in patients with advanced hepatocellular carcinoma. UNLABELLED: Angiogenesis inhibition by the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGFR) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) inhibitor sorafenib provides survival benefit in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC); however, angiogenic escape from sorafenib may occur due to angiogenesis-associated fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) pathway activation. In addition to VEGFR and PDGFR, dovitinib inhibits FGFR. Frontline oral dovitinib (500 mg/day, 5 days on, 2 days off; n = 82) versus sorafenib (400 mg twice daily; n = 83) was evaluated in an open-label, randomized phase 2 study of Asian-Pacific patients with advanced HCC. The primary and key secondary endpoints were overall survival (OS) and time to tumor progression (TTP) as determined by a local investigator, respectively. Patients included in the study were ineligible for surgical and/or locoregional therapies or had disease progression after receiving these therapies. The median OS (95% confidence interval [CI]) was 8.0 (6.6-9.1) months for dovitinib and 8.4 (5.4-11.3) months for sorafenib. The median TTP (95% CI) per investigator assessment was 4.1 (2.8-4.2) months and 4.1 (2.8-4.3) months for dovitinib and sorafenib, respectively. Common any-cause adverse events included diarrhea (62%), decreased appetite (43%), nausea (41%), vomiting (41%), fatigue (35%), rash (34%), and pyrexia (30%) for dovitinib and palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia syndrome (66%) and decreased appetite (31%) for sorafenib. Subgroup analysis revealed a significantly higher median OS for patients in the dovitinib arm who had baseline plasma soluble VEGFR1 (sVEGFR1) and hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) below median levels versus at or above the median levels (median OS [95% CI]: sVEGFR1, 11.2 [9.0-13.8] and 5.7 [4.3-7.0] months, respectively [P = .0002]; HGF, 11.2 [8.9-13.8] and 5.9 [5.0-7.6] months, respectively [P = 0.0002]). CONCLUSION: Dovitinib was well tolerated, but activity was not greater than sorafenib as a frontline systemic therapy for HCC. Based on these data, no subsequent phase 3 study has been planned. (Hepatology 2016;64:774-784).
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_026
{ "answer_start": [ 533 ], "text": [ "PDGFR" ] }
FGFR inhibitors: Effects on cancer cells, tumor microenvironment and whole-body homeostasis (Review). Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)2, FGF4, FGF7 and FGF20 are representative paracrine FGFs binding to heparan-sulfate proteoglycan and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs), whereas FGF19, FGF21 and FGF23 are endocrine FGFs binding to Klotho and FGFRs. FGFR1 is relatively frequently amplified and overexpressed in breast and lung cancer, and FGFR2 in gastric cancer. BCR-FGFR1, CNTRL-FGFR1, CUX1-FGFR1, FGFR1OP-FGFR1, MYO18A-FGFR1 and ZMYM2-FGFR1 fusions in myeloproliferative neoplasms are non-receptor-type FGFR kinases, whereas FGFR1-TACC1, FGFR2-AFF3, FGFR2-BICC1, FGFR2-PPHLN1, FGFR3-BAIAP2L1 and FGFR3-TACC3 fusions in solid tumors are transmembrane-type FGFRs with C-terminal alterations. AZD4547, BGJ398 (infigratinib), Debio-1347 and dovitinib are FGFR1/2/3 inhibitors; BLU9931 is a selective FGFR4 inhibitor; FIIN-2, JNJ-42756493, LY2874455 and ponatinib are pan-FGFR inhibitors. AZD4547, dovitinib and ponatinib are multi-kinase inhibitors targeting FGFRs, colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)R2, and others. The tumor microenvironment consists of cancer cells and stromal/immune cells, such as cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs), endothelial cells, M2-type tumor-associating macrophages (M2-TAMs), myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and regulatory T cells. FGFR inhibitors elicit antitumor effects directly on cancer cells, as well as indirectly through the blockade of paracrine signaling. The dual inhibition of FGF and CSF1 or VEGF signaling is expected to enhance the antitumor effects through the targeting of immune evasion and angiogenesis in the tumor microenvironment. Combination therapy using tyrosine kinase inhibitors (FGFR or CSF1R inhibitors) and immune checkpoint blockers (anti-PD-1 or anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibodies) may be a promising choice for cancer patients. The inhibition of FGF19-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of liver toxicity, whereas the activation of FGF23-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of heart toxicity. Endocrine FGF signaling affects the pathophysiology of cancer patients who are prescribed FGFR inhibitors. Whole-genome sequencing is necessary for the detection of promoter/enhancer alterations of FGFR genes and rare alterations of other genes causing FGFR overexpression. To sustain the health care system in an aging society, a benefit-cost analysis should be performed with a focus on disease-free survival and the total medical cost before implementing genome-based precision medicine for cancer patients.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_027
{ "answer_start": [ 862 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
FGFR inhibitors: Effects on cancer cells, tumor microenvironment and whole-body homeostasis (Review). Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)2, FGF4, FGF7 and FGF20 are representative paracrine FGFs binding to heparan-sulfate proteoglycan and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs), whereas FGF19, FGF21 and FGF23 are endocrine FGFs binding to Klotho and FGFRs. FGFR1 is relatively frequently amplified and overexpressed in breast and lung cancer, and FGFR2 in gastric cancer. BCR-FGFR1, CNTRL-FGFR1, CUX1-FGFR1, FGFR1OP-FGFR1, MYO18A-FGFR1 and ZMYM2-FGFR1 fusions in myeloproliferative neoplasms are non-receptor-type FGFR kinases, whereas FGFR1-TACC1, FGFR2-AFF3, FGFR2-BICC1, FGFR2-PPHLN1, FGFR3-BAIAP2L1 and FGFR3-TACC3 fusions in solid tumors are transmembrane-type FGFRs with C-terminal alterations. AZD4547, BGJ398 (infigratinib), Debio-1347 and dovitinib are FGFR1/2/3 inhibitors; BLU9931 is a selective FGFR4 inhibitor; FIIN-2, JNJ-42756493, LY2874455 and ponatinib are pan-FGFR inhibitors. AZD4547, dovitinib and ponatinib are multi-kinase inhibitors targeting FGFRs, colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)R2, and others. The tumor microenvironment consists of cancer cells and stromal/immune cells, such as cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs), endothelial cells, M2-type tumor-associating macrophages (M2-TAMs), myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and regulatory T cells. FGFR inhibitors elicit antitumor effects directly on cancer cells, as well as indirectly through the blockade of paracrine signaling. The dual inhibition of FGF and CSF1 or VEGF signaling is expected to enhance the antitumor effects through the targeting of immune evasion and angiogenesis in the tumor microenvironment. Combination therapy using tyrosine kinase inhibitors (FGFR or CSF1R inhibitors) and immune checkpoint blockers (anti-PD-1 or anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibodies) may be a promising choice for cancer patients. The inhibition of FGF19-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of liver toxicity, whereas the activation of FGF23-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of heart toxicity. Endocrine FGF signaling affects the pathophysiology of cancer patients who are prescribed FGFR inhibitors. Whole-genome sequencing is necessary for the detection of promoter/enhancer alterations of FGFR genes and rare alterations of other genes causing FGFR overexpression. To sustain the health care system in an aging society, a benefit-cost analysis should be performed with a focus on disease-free survival and the total medical cost before implementing genome-based precision medicine for cancer patients.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_028
{ "answer_start": [ 907 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
FGFR inhibitors: Effects on cancer cells, tumor microenvironment and whole-body homeostasis (Review). Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)2, FGF4, FGF7 and FGF20 are representative paracrine FGFs binding to heparan-sulfate proteoglycan and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs), whereas FGF19, FGF21 and FGF23 are endocrine FGFs binding to Klotho and FGFRs. FGFR1 is relatively frequently amplified and overexpressed in breast and lung cancer, and FGFR2 in gastric cancer. BCR-FGFR1, CNTRL-FGFR1, CUX1-FGFR1, FGFR1OP-FGFR1, MYO18A-FGFR1 and ZMYM2-FGFR1 fusions in myeloproliferative neoplasms are non-receptor-type FGFR kinases, whereas FGFR1-TACC1, FGFR2-AFF3, FGFR2-BICC1, FGFR2-PPHLN1, FGFR3-BAIAP2L1 and FGFR3-TACC3 fusions in solid tumors are transmembrane-type FGFRs with C-terminal alterations. AZD4547, BGJ398 (infigratinib), Debio-1347 and dovitinib are FGFR1/2/3 inhibitors; BLU9931 is a selective FGFR4 inhibitor; FIIN-2, JNJ-42756493, LY2874455 and ponatinib are pan-FGFR inhibitors. AZD4547, dovitinib and ponatinib are multi-kinase inhibitors targeting FGFRs, colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)R2, and others. The tumor microenvironment consists of cancer cells and stromal/immune cells, such as cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs), endothelial cells, M2-type tumor-associating macrophages (M2-TAMs), myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and regulatory T cells. FGFR inhibitors elicit antitumor effects directly on cancer cells, as well as indirectly through the blockade of paracrine signaling. The dual inhibition of FGF and CSF1 or VEGF signaling is expected to enhance the antitumor effects through the targeting of immune evasion and angiogenesis in the tumor microenvironment. Combination therapy using tyrosine kinase inhibitors (FGFR or CSF1R inhibitors) and immune checkpoint blockers (anti-PD-1 or anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibodies) may be a promising choice for cancer patients. The inhibition of FGF19-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of liver toxicity, whereas the activation of FGF23-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of heart toxicity. Endocrine FGF signaling affects the pathophysiology of cancer patients who are prescribed FGFR inhibitors. Whole-genome sequencing is necessary for the detection of promoter/enhancer alterations of FGFR genes and rare alterations of other genes causing FGFR overexpression. To sustain the health care system in an aging society, a benefit-cost analysis should be performed with a focus on disease-free survival and the total medical cost before implementing genome-based precision medicine for cancer patients.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_029
{ "answer_start": [ 978 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
FGFR inhibitors: Effects on cancer cells, tumor microenvironment and whole-body homeostasis (Review). Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)2, FGF4, FGF7 and FGF20 are representative paracrine FGFs binding to heparan-sulfate proteoglycan and fibroblast growth factor receptors (FGFRs), whereas FGF19, FGF21 and FGF23 are endocrine FGFs binding to Klotho and FGFRs. FGFR1 is relatively frequently amplified and overexpressed in breast and lung cancer, and FGFR2 in gastric cancer. BCR-FGFR1, CNTRL-FGFR1, CUX1-FGFR1, FGFR1OP-FGFR1, MYO18A-FGFR1 and ZMYM2-FGFR1 fusions in myeloproliferative neoplasms are non-receptor-type FGFR kinases, whereas FGFR1-TACC1, FGFR2-AFF3, FGFR2-BICC1, FGFR2-PPHLN1, FGFR3-BAIAP2L1 and FGFR3-TACC3 fusions in solid tumors are transmembrane-type FGFRs with C-terminal alterations. AZD4547, BGJ398 (infigratinib), Debio-1347 and dovitinib are FGFR1/2/3 inhibitors; BLU9931 is a selective FGFR4 inhibitor; FIIN-2, JNJ-42756493, LY2874455 and ponatinib are pan-FGFR inhibitors. AZD4547, dovitinib and ponatinib are multi-kinase inhibitors targeting FGFRs, colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R), vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)R2, and others. The tumor microenvironment consists of cancer cells and stromal/immune cells, such as cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs), endothelial cells, M2-type tumor-associating macrophages (M2-TAMs), myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) and regulatory T cells. FGFR inhibitors elicit antitumor effects directly on cancer cells, as well as indirectly through the blockade of paracrine signaling. The dual inhibition of FGF and CSF1 or VEGF signaling is expected to enhance the antitumor effects through the targeting of immune evasion and angiogenesis in the tumor microenvironment. Combination therapy using tyrosine kinase inhibitors (FGFR or CSF1R inhibitors) and immune checkpoint blockers (anti-PD-1 or anti-CTLA-4 monoclonal antibodies) may be a promising choice for cancer patients. The inhibition of FGF19-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of liver toxicity, whereas the activation of FGF23-FGFR4 signaling is associated with a risk of heart toxicity. Endocrine FGF signaling affects the pathophysiology of cancer patients who are prescribed FGFR inhibitors. Whole-genome sequencing is necessary for the detection of promoter/enhancer alterations of FGFR genes and rare alterations of other genes causing FGFR overexpression. To sustain the health care system in an aging society, a benefit-cost analysis should be performed with a focus on disease-free survival and the total medical cost before implementing genome-based precision medicine for cancer patients.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_030
{ "answer_start": [ 1066 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
An FGFR3 Autocrine Loop Sustains Acquired Resistance to Trastuzumab in Gastric Cancer Patients. PURPOSE: The majority of gastric cancer patients who achieve an initial response to trastuzumab-based regimens develop resistance within 1 year of treatment. This study was aimed at identifying the molecular mechanisms responsible for resistance. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: A HER2-trastuzumab sensitive NCI-N87 gastric cancer orthotopic nude mouse model was treated with trastuzumab until resistance emerged. Differentially expressed transcripts between trastuzumab-resistant and sensitive gastric cancer cell lines were annotated for functional interrelatedness by Ingenuity Pathway Analysis software. Immunohistochemical analyses were performed in pretreatment versus posttreatment biopsies from gastric cancer patients receiving trastuzumab-based treatments. All statistical tests were two-sided. RESULTS: Four NCI-N87 trastuzumab-resistant (N87-TR) cell lines were established. Microarray analysis showed HER2 downregulation, induction of epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition, and indicated fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) as one of the top upregulated genes in N87-TR cell lines. In vitro, N87-TR cell lines demonstrated a higher sensitivity than did trastuzumab-sensitive parental cells to the FGFR3 inhibitor dovitinib, which reduced expression of pAKT, ZEB1, and cell migration. Oral dovitinib significantly (P = 0.0006) reduced tumor burden and prolonged mice survival duration in N87-TR mouse models. A higher expression of FGFR3, phosphorylated AKT, and ZEB1 were observed in biopsies from patients progressing under trastuzumab-based therapies if compared with matched pretreatment biopsies. CONCLUSIONS: This study identified the FGFR3/AKT axis as an escape pathway responsible for trastuzumab resistance in gastric cancer, thus indicating the inhibition of FGFR3 as a potential strategy to modulate this resistance. Clin Cancer Res; 22(24); 6164-75. ©2016 AACR.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_031
{ "answer_start": [ 1302 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Efficacy and safety of dovitinib in pretreated patients with advanced squamous non-small cell lung cancer with FGFR1 amplification: A single-arm, phase 2 study. BACKGROUND: Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (FGFR1) amplification is a potential driving oncogene in squamous cell cancer (SCC) of the lung. The current phase 2 study evaluated the efficacy and tolerability of dovitinib, an FGFR inhibitor, in patients with advanced SCC of the lung. METHODS: Patients with pretreated advanced SCC of the lung whose tumors demonstrated FGFR1 amplification of > 5 copies by fluorescence in situ hybridization were enrolled. Dovitinib at a dose of 500 mg was administered orally, once daily, on days 1 to 5 of every week, followed by 2 days off. The primary endpoint was overall response. Secondary endpoints were progression-free survival, overall survival, and toxicity. RESULTS: All 26 patients were men with a median age of 68 years (range, 52-80 years). The majority of patients were ever-smokers. The median duration of dovitinib administration (28 days per cycle) was 2.5 months (range, 0.7-8.6 months). The overall response rate was 11.5% (95% confidence interval [95% CI], 0.8%-23.8%) and the disease control rate was 50% (95% CI, 30.8%-69.2%), with 3 patients achieving partial responses. Response durations for the patients with partial responses were > 4.5 months, > 5.1 months, and 6.1 months, respectively. After a median follow-up of 15.7 months (range, 1.2-25.6 months), the median overall survival was 5.0 months (95% CI, 3.6-6.4 months) and the median progression-free survival was 2.9 months (95% CI, 1.5-4.3 months). The most common grade 3 or higher adverse events were fatigue (19.2%), anorexia (11.5%), and hyponatremia (11.5%) (event severity was graded based on National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [version 4.0]). CONCLUSIONS: Treatment with dovitinib demonstrated modest efficacy in patients with advanced SCC with FGFR1 amplification. Further studies to evaluate other biomarkers correlated with the efficacy of dovitinib in patients with SCC are warranted. Cancer 2016;122:3024-3031. © 2016 American Cancer Society.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_032
{ "answer_start": [ 389 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
The N550K/H mutations in FGFR2 confer differential resistance to PD173074, dovitinib, and ponatinib ATP-competitive inhibitors. We sought to identify fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) kinase domain mutations that confer resistance to the pan-FGFR inhibitor, dovitinib, and explore the mechanism of action of the drug-resistant mutations. We cultured BaF3 cells overexpressing FGFR2 in high concentrations of dovitinib and identified 14 dovitinib-resistant mutations, including the N550K mutation observed in 25% of FGFR2(mutant) endometrial cancers (ECs). Structural and biochemical in vitro kinase analyses, together with BaF3 proliferation assays, showed that the resistance mutations elevate the intrinsic kinase activity of FGFR2. BaF3 lines were used to assess the ability of each mutation to confer cross-resistance to PD173074 and ponatinib. Unlike PD173074, ponatinib effectively inhibited all the dovitinib-resistant FGFR2 mutants except the V565I gatekeeper mutation, suggesting ponatinib but not dovitinib targets the active conformation of FGFR2 kinase. EC cell lines expressing wild-type FGFR2 were relatively resistant to all inhibitors, whereas EC cell lines expressing mutated FGFR2 showed differential sensitivity. Within the FGFR2(mutant) cell lines, three of seven showed marked resistance to PD173074 and relative resistance to dovitinib and ponatinib. This suggests that alternative mechanisms distinct from kinase domain mutations are responsible for intrinsic resistance in these three EC lines. Finally, overexpression of FGFR2(N550K) in JHUEM-2 cells (FGFR2(C383R)) conferred resistance (about five-fold) to PD173074, providing independent data that FGFR2(N550K) can be associated with drug resistance. Biochemical in vitro kinase analyses also show that ponatinib is more effective than dovitinib at inhibiting FGFR2(N550K). We propose that tumors harboring mutationally activated FGFRs should be treated with FGFR inhibitors that specifically bind the active kinase.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_033
{ "answer_start": [ 187 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
The N550K/H mutations in FGFR2 confer differential resistance to PD173074, dovitinib, and ponatinib ATP-competitive inhibitors. We sought to identify fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) kinase domain mutations that confer resistance to the pan-FGFR inhibitor, dovitinib, and explore the mechanism of action of the drug-resistant mutations. We cultured BaF3 cells overexpressing FGFR2 in high concentrations of dovitinib and identified 14 dovitinib-resistant mutations, including the N550K mutation observed in 25% of FGFR2(mutant) endometrial cancers (ECs). Structural and biochemical in vitro kinase analyses, together with BaF3 proliferation assays, showed that the resistance mutations elevate the intrinsic kinase activity of FGFR2. BaF3 lines were used to assess the ability of each mutation to confer cross-resistance to PD173074 and ponatinib. Unlike PD173074, ponatinib effectively inhibited all the dovitinib-resistant FGFR2 mutants except the V565I gatekeeper mutation, suggesting ponatinib but not dovitinib targets the active conformation of FGFR2 kinase. EC cell lines expressing wild-type FGFR2 were relatively resistant to all inhibitors, whereas EC cell lines expressing mutated FGFR2 showed differential sensitivity. Within the FGFR2(mutant) cell lines, three of seven showed marked resistance to PD173074 and relative resistance to dovitinib and ponatinib. This suggests that alternative mechanisms distinct from kinase domain mutations are responsible for intrinsic resistance in these three EC lines. Finally, overexpression of FGFR2(N550K) in JHUEM-2 cells (FGFR2(C383R)) conferred resistance (about five-fold) to PD173074, providing independent data that FGFR2(N550K) can be associated with drug resistance. Biochemical in vitro kinase analyses also show that ponatinib is more effective than dovitinib at inhibiting FGFR2(N550K). We propose that tumors harboring mutationally activated FGFRs should be treated with FGFR inhibitors that specifically bind the active kinase.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_034
{ "answer_start": [ 252 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Multiple milia formation induced by dovitinib. Dovitinib is a novel multi-target tyrosine kinase inhibitor that inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptor-1-3, platelet-derived growth factor receptor-β, Fms-like tyrosine kinase 3, c-Kit and fibroblast growth factor receptor-1-3. This compound is currently being assessed clinically for treatment of various malignancies. In phase I and II clinical trials of dovitinib treatment for renal cell carcinoma, 20% of patients experienced cutaneous adverse events, although the specific type of skin rash was not documented. Here, we report two cases of multiple milia formation induced by dovitinib. We believe our cases are the first report mainly showing non-inflammatory cystic structure.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_035
{ "answer_start": [ 243 ], "text": [ "Kit" ] }
Activity of the fibroblast growth factor receptor inhibitors dovitinib (TKI258) and NVP-BGJ398 in human endometrial cancer cells. The recent identification of activating fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) mutations in endometrial cancer has generated an opportunity for a novel target-based therapy. Here, we explore the therapeutic potential of 2 FGFR inhibitors, the multikinase inhibitor dovitinib (TKI258) and the more selective FGFR inhibitor NVP-BGJ398 for the treatment of endometrial cancer. We examined the effects of both inhibitors on tumor cell growth, FGFR2 signaling, cell cycle, and apoptosis using a panel of 20 molecularly characterized human endometrial cancer cell lines. Anchorage-independent growth was studied using soft agar assays. In vivo studies were conducted using endometrial cancer xenograft models. Cell lines with activating FGFR2 mutations (S252W, N550K) were more sensitive to dovitinib or NVP-BGJ398 when compared with their FGFR2 wild-type counterparts (P = 0.073 and P = 0.021, respectively). Both agents inhibited FGFR2 signaling, induced cell-cycle arrest, and significantly increased apoptosis in FGFR2-mutant lines. In vitro, dovitinib and NVP-BGJ398 were both potent at inhibiting cell growth of FGFR2-mutant endometrial cancer cells, but the activity of dovitinib was less restricted to FGFR2-mutant lines when compared with NVP-BGJ398. In vivo, dovitinib and NVP-BGJ398 significantly inhibited the growth of FGFR2-mutated endometrial cancer xenograft models. In addition, dovitinib showed significant antitumor activity in FGFR2 wild-type endometrial cancer xenograft models including complete tumor regressions in a long-term in vivo study. Dovitinib and NVP-BGJ398 warrant further clinical evaluation in patients with FGFR2-mutated endometrial cancer. Dovitinib may have antitumor activity in endometrial cancer beyond FGFR2-mutated cases and may permit greater flexibility in patient selection.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_036
{ "answer_start": [ 357 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Activity of the fibroblast growth factor receptor inhibitors dovitinib (TKI258) and NVP-BGJ398 in human endometrial cancer cells. The recent identification of activating fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 (FGFR2) mutations in endometrial cancer has generated an opportunity for a novel target-based therapy. Here, we explore the therapeutic potential of 2 FGFR inhibitors, the multikinase inhibitor dovitinib (TKI258) and the more selective FGFR inhibitor NVP-BGJ398 for the treatment of endometrial cancer. We examined the effects of both inhibitors on tumor cell growth, FGFR2 signaling, cell cycle, and apoptosis using a panel of 20 molecularly characterized human endometrial cancer cell lines. Anchorage-independent growth was studied using soft agar assays. In vivo studies were conducted using endometrial cancer xenograft models. Cell lines with activating FGFR2 mutations (S252W, N550K) were more sensitive to dovitinib or NVP-BGJ398 when compared with their FGFR2 wild-type counterparts (P = 0.073 and P = 0.021, respectively). Both agents inhibited FGFR2 signaling, induced cell-cycle arrest, and significantly increased apoptosis in FGFR2-mutant lines. In vitro, dovitinib and NVP-BGJ398 were both potent at inhibiting cell growth of FGFR2-mutant endometrial cancer cells, but the activity of dovitinib was less restricted to FGFR2-mutant lines when compared with NVP-BGJ398. In vivo, dovitinib and NVP-BGJ398 significantly inhibited the growth of FGFR2-mutated endometrial cancer xenograft models. In addition, dovitinib showed significant antitumor activity in FGFR2 wild-type endometrial cancer xenograft models including complete tumor regressions in a long-term in vivo study. Dovitinib and NVP-BGJ398 warrant further clinical evaluation in patients with FGFR2-mutated endometrial cancer. Dovitinib may have antitumor activity in endometrial cancer beyond FGFR2-mutated cases and may permit greater flexibility in patient selection.
Which molecules are inhibited by anticancer drug Dovitinib?
5a7486a90384be9551000003_037
{ "answer_start": [ 442 ], "text": [ "FGFR" ] }
Bezlotoxumab for Prevention of Recurrent Clostridium difficile Infection. BACKGROUND: Clostridium difficile is the most common cause of infectious diarrhea in hospitalized patients. Recurrences are common after antibiotic therapy. Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab are human monoclonal antibodies against C. difficile toxins A and B, respectively. METHODS: We conducted two double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled, phase 3 trials, MODIFY I and MODIFY II, involving 2655 adults receiving oral standard-of-care antibiotics for primary or recurrent C. difficile infection. Participants received an infusion of bezlotoxumab (10 mg per kilogram of body weight), actoxumab plus bezlotoxumab (10 mg per kilogram each), or placebo; actoxumab alone (10 mg per kilogram) was given in MODIFY I but discontinued after a planned interim analysis. The primary end point was recurrent infection (new episode after initial clinical cure) within 12 weeks after infusion in the modified intention-to-treat population. RESULTS: In both trials, the rate of recurrent C. difficile infection was significantly lower with bezlotoxumab alone than with placebo (MODIFY I: 17% [67 of 386] vs. 28% [109 of 395]; adjusted difference, -10.1 percentage points; 95% confidence interval [CI], -15.9 to -4.3; P<0.001; MODIFY II: 16% [62 of 395] vs. 26% [97 of 378]; adjusted difference, -9.9 percentage points; 95% CI, -15.5 to -4.3; P<0.001) and was significantly lower with actoxumab plus bezlotoxumab than with placebo (MODIFY I: 16% [61 of 383] vs. 28% [109 of 395]; adjusted difference, -11.6 percentage points; 95% CI, -17.4 to -5.9; P<0.001; MODIFY II: 15% [58 of 390] vs. 26% [97 of 378]; adjusted difference, -10.7 percentage points; 95% CI, -16.4 to -5.1; P<0.001). In prespecified subgroup analyses (combined data set), rates of recurrent infection were lower in both groups that received bezlotoxumab than in the placebo group in subpopulations at high risk for recurrent infection or for an adverse outcome. The rates of initial clinical cure were 80% with bezlotoxumab alone, 73% with actoxumab plus bezlotoxumab, and 80% with placebo; the rates of sustained cure (initial clinical cure without recurrent infection in 12 weeks) were 64%, 58%, and 54%, respectively. The rates of adverse events were similar among these groups; the most common events were diarrhea and nausea. CONCLUSIONS: Among participants receiving antibiotic treatment for primary or recurrent C. difficile infection, bezlotoxumab was associated with a substantially lower rate of recurrent infection than placebo and had a safety profile similar to that of placebo. The addition of actoxumab did not improve efficacy. (Funded by Merck; MODIFY I and MODIFY II ClinicalTrials.gov numbers, NCT01241552 and NCT01513239 .).
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_001
{ "answer_start": [ 231 ], "text": [ "Actoxumab" ] }
Bezlotoxumab for Prevention of Recurrent Clostridium difficile Infection. BACKGROUND: Clostridium difficile is the most common cause of infectious diarrhea in hospitalized patients. Recurrences are common after antibiotic therapy. Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab are human monoclonal antibodies against C. difficile toxins A and B, respectively. METHODS: We conducted two double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled, phase 3 trials, MODIFY I and MODIFY II, involving 2655 adults receiving oral standard-of-care antibiotics for primary or recurrent C. difficile infection. Participants received an infusion of bezlotoxumab (10 mg per kilogram of body weight), actoxumab plus bezlotoxumab (10 mg per kilogram each), or placebo; actoxumab alone (10 mg per kilogram) was given in MODIFY I but discontinued after a planned interim analysis. The primary end point was recurrent infection (new episode after initial clinical cure) within 12 weeks after infusion in the modified intention-to-treat population. RESULTS: In both trials, the rate of recurrent C. difficile infection was significantly lower with bezlotoxumab alone than with placebo (MODIFY I: 17% [67 of 386] vs. 28% [109 of 395]; adjusted difference, -10.1 percentage points; 95% confidence interval [CI], -15.9 to -4.3; P<0.001; MODIFY II: 16% [62 of 395] vs. 26% [97 of 378]; adjusted difference, -9.9 percentage points; 95% CI, -15.5 to -4.3; P<0.001) and was significantly lower with actoxumab plus bezlotoxumab than with placebo (MODIFY I: 16% [61 of 383] vs. 28% [109 of 395]; adjusted difference, -11.6 percentage points; 95% CI, -17.4 to -5.9; P<0.001; MODIFY II: 15% [58 of 390] vs. 26% [97 of 378]; adjusted difference, -10.7 percentage points; 95% CI, -16.4 to -5.1; P<0.001). In prespecified subgroup analyses (combined data set), rates of recurrent infection were lower in both groups that received bezlotoxumab than in the placebo group in subpopulations at high risk for recurrent infection or for an adverse outcome. The rates of initial clinical cure were 80% with bezlotoxumab alone, 73% with actoxumab plus bezlotoxumab, and 80% with placebo; the rates of sustained cure (initial clinical cure without recurrent infection in 12 weeks) were 64%, 58%, and 54%, respectively. The rates of adverse events were similar among these groups; the most common events were diarrhea and nausea. CONCLUSIONS: Among participants receiving antibiotic treatment for primary or recurrent C. difficile infection, bezlotoxumab was associated with a substantially lower rate of recurrent infection than placebo and had a safety profile similar to that of placebo. The addition of actoxumab did not improve efficacy. (Funded by Merck; MODIFY I and MODIFY II ClinicalTrials.gov numbers, NCT01241552 and NCT01513239 .).
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_002
{ "answer_start": [ 245 ], "text": [ "bezlotoxumab" ] }
Emerging monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile infection. Clostridium difficile infections are characterized by a high recurrence rate despite antibiotic treatments and there is an urgent need to develop new treatments such as fecal transplantation and immonotherapy. Besides active immunotherapy with vaccines, passive immunotherapy has shown promise, especially with monoclonal antibodies. Areas covered: Herein, the authors review the different assays performed with monoclonal antibodies against C. difficile toxins and surface proteins to treat or prevent primary or recurrent episodes of C. difficile infection in animal models and in clinical trials as well. Notably, the authors lay emphasis on the phase III clinical trial (MODIFY II), which allowed bezlotoxumab to be approved by the Food and Drug Administration and the European Medicines Agency. They also review new strategies for producing single domain antibodies and nanobodies against C. difficile and new approaches to deliver them in the digestive tract. Expert opinion: Only two human Mabs against TcdA and TcdB have been tested alone or in combination in clinical trials. However, many animal model studies have provided rationale for the use of Mabs and nanobodies in C. difficile infection and pave the way for further clinical investigation.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_003
{ "answer_start": [ 773 ], "text": [ "bezlotoxumab" ] }
Bezlotoxumab: A Novel Agent for the Prevention of Recurrent Clostridium difficile Infection. During the past decade, the incidence and severity of Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) have significantly increased, leading to a rise in CDI-associated hospitalizations, health care costs, and mortality. Although treatment options exist for CDI, recurrence is frequent following treatment. Furthermore, patients with at least one CDI recurrence are at an increased risk of developing additional recurrences. A novel approach to the prevention of recurrent CDI is the use of monoclonal antibodies directed against the toxins responsible for CDI as an adjunct to antibiotic treatment. Bezlotoxumab, a human monoclonal antibody that binds and neutralizes C. difficile toxin B, is the first therapeutic agent to receive United States Food and Drug Administration approval for the prevention of CDI recurrence. Clinical studies have demonstrated superior efficacy of bezlotoxumab in adults receiving antibiotic therapy for CDI compared with antibiotic therapy alone for the prevention of CDI recurrence. Bezlotoxumab was well tolerated in clinical trials, with the most common adverse effects being nausea, vomiting, fatigue, pyrexia, headache, and diarrhea. The demonstrated efficacy, safety, and characteristics of bezlotoxumab present an advance in prevention of CDI recurrence.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_004
{ "answer_start": [ 682 ], "text": [ "Bezlotoxumab" ] }
The Monoclonal Antitoxin Antibodies (Actoxumab-Bezlotoxumab) Treatment Facilitates Normalization of the Gut Microbiota of Mice with Clostridium difficile Infection. Antibiotics have significant and long-lasting impacts on the intestinal microbiota and consequently reduce colonization resistance against Clostridium difficile infection (CDI). Standard therapy using antibiotics is associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment strategies that target toxins, the major virulence factors, rather than the organism itself. Human monoclonal antibodies MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) to C. difficile toxin A and toxin B, as an emerging non-antibiotic approach, significantly reduced the recurrence of CDI in animal models and human clinical trials. Although the main mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins, the impact of MK-3415A on gut microbiota and its restoration has not been examined. Using a CDI murine model, we compared the bacterial diversity of the gut microbiome of mice under different treatments including MK-3415A, vancomycin, or vancomycin combined with MK-3415A, sampled longitudinally. Here, we showed that C. difficile infection resulted in the prevalence of Enterobacter species. Sixty percent of mice in the vehicle group died after 2 days and their microbiome was almost exclusively formed by Enterobacter. MK-3415A treatment resulted in lower Enterobacter levels and restoration of Blautia, Akkermansia, and Lactobacillus which were the core components of the original microbiota. Vancomycin treatment led to significantly lower survival rate than the combo treatment of MK-3415A and vancomycin. Vancomycin treatment decreased bacterial diversity with predominant Enterobacter and Akkermansia, while Staphylococcus expanded after vancomycin treatment was terminated. In contrast, mice treated by vancomycin combined with MK-3415A also experienced decreased bacterial diversity during vancomycin treatment. However, these animals were able to recover their initial Blautia and Lactobacillus proportions, even though episodes of Staphylococcus overgrowth were detected by the end of the experiments. In conclusion, MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) treatment facilitates normalization of the gut microbiota in CDI mice. It remains to be examined whether or not the prevention of recurrent CDI by the antitoxin antibodies observed in clinical trials occurs through modulation of microbiota.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_005
{ "answer_start": [ 37 ], "text": [ "Actoxumab" ] }
The Monoclonal Antitoxin Antibodies (Actoxumab-Bezlotoxumab) Treatment Facilitates Normalization of the Gut Microbiota of Mice with Clostridium difficile Infection. Antibiotics have significant and long-lasting impacts on the intestinal microbiota and consequently reduce colonization resistance against Clostridium difficile infection (CDI). Standard therapy using antibiotics is associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment strategies that target toxins, the major virulence factors, rather than the organism itself. Human monoclonal antibodies MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) to C. difficile toxin A and toxin B, as an emerging non-antibiotic approach, significantly reduced the recurrence of CDI in animal models and human clinical trials. Although the main mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins, the impact of MK-3415A on gut microbiota and its restoration has not been examined. Using a CDI murine model, we compared the bacterial diversity of the gut microbiome of mice under different treatments including MK-3415A, vancomycin, or vancomycin combined with MK-3415A, sampled longitudinally. Here, we showed that C. difficile infection resulted in the prevalence of Enterobacter species. Sixty percent of mice in the vehicle group died after 2 days and their microbiome was almost exclusively formed by Enterobacter. MK-3415A treatment resulted in lower Enterobacter levels and restoration of Blautia, Akkermansia, and Lactobacillus which were the core components of the original microbiota. Vancomycin treatment led to significantly lower survival rate than the combo treatment of MK-3415A and vancomycin. Vancomycin treatment decreased bacterial diversity with predominant Enterobacter and Akkermansia, while Staphylococcus expanded after vancomycin treatment was terminated. In contrast, mice treated by vancomycin combined with MK-3415A also experienced decreased bacterial diversity during vancomycin treatment. However, these animals were able to recover their initial Blautia and Lactobacillus proportions, even though episodes of Staphylococcus overgrowth were detected by the end of the experiments. In conclusion, MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) treatment facilitates normalization of the gut microbiota in CDI mice. It remains to be examined whether or not the prevention of recurrent CDI by the antitoxin antibodies observed in clinical trials occurs through modulation of microbiota.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_006
{ "answer_start": [ 47 ], "text": [ "Bezlotoxumab" ] }
The Monoclonal Antitoxin Antibodies (Actoxumab-Bezlotoxumab) Treatment Facilitates Normalization of the Gut Microbiota of Mice with Clostridium difficile Infection. Antibiotics have significant and long-lasting impacts on the intestinal microbiota and consequently reduce colonization resistance against Clostridium difficile infection (CDI). Standard therapy using antibiotics is associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment strategies that target toxins, the major virulence factors, rather than the organism itself. Human monoclonal antibodies MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) to C. difficile toxin A and toxin B, as an emerging non-antibiotic approach, significantly reduced the recurrence of CDI in animal models and human clinical trials. Although the main mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins, the impact of MK-3415A on gut microbiota and its restoration has not been examined. Using a CDI murine model, we compared the bacterial diversity of the gut microbiome of mice under different treatments including MK-3415A, vancomycin, or vancomycin combined with MK-3415A, sampled longitudinally. Here, we showed that C. difficile infection resulted in the prevalence of Enterobacter species. Sixty percent of mice in the vehicle group died after 2 days and their microbiome was almost exclusively formed by Enterobacter. MK-3415A treatment resulted in lower Enterobacter levels and restoration of Blautia, Akkermansia, and Lactobacillus which were the core components of the original microbiota. Vancomycin treatment led to significantly lower survival rate than the combo treatment of MK-3415A and vancomycin. Vancomycin treatment decreased bacterial diversity with predominant Enterobacter and Akkermansia, while Staphylococcus expanded after vancomycin treatment was terminated. In contrast, mice treated by vancomycin combined with MK-3415A also experienced decreased bacterial diversity during vancomycin treatment. However, these animals were able to recover their initial Blautia and Lactobacillus proportions, even though episodes of Staphylococcus overgrowth were detected by the end of the experiments. In conclusion, MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) treatment facilitates normalization of the gut microbiota in CDI mice. It remains to be examined whether or not the prevention of recurrent CDI by the antitoxin antibodies observed in clinical trials occurs through modulation of microbiota.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_007
{ "answer_start": [ 605 ], "text": [ "actoxumab" ] }
The Monoclonal Antitoxin Antibodies (Actoxumab-Bezlotoxumab) Treatment Facilitates Normalization of the Gut Microbiota of Mice with Clostridium difficile Infection. Antibiotics have significant and long-lasting impacts on the intestinal microbiota and consequently reduce colonization resistance against Clostridium difficile infection (CDI). Standard therapy using antibiotics is associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment strategies that target toxins, the major virulence factors, rather than the organism itself. Human monoclonal antibodies MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) to C. difficile toxin A and toxin B, as an emerging non-antibiotic approach, significantly reduced the recurrence of CDI in animal models and human clinical trials. Although the main mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins, the impact of MK-3415A on gut microbiota and its restoration has not been examined. Using a CDI murine model, we compared the bacterial diversity of the gut microbiome of mice under different treatments including MK-3415A, vancomycin, or vancomycin combined with MK-3415A, sampled longitudinally. Here, we showed that C. difficile infection resulted in the prevalence of Enterobacter species. Sixty percent of mice in the vehicle group died after 2 days and their microbiome was almost exclusively formed by Enterobacter. MK-3415A treatment resulted in lower Enterobacter levels and restoration of Blautia, Akkermansia, and Lactobacillus which were the core components of the original microbiota. Vancomycin treatment led to significantly lower survival rate than the combo treatment of MK-3415A and vancomycin. Vancomycin treatment decreased bacterial diversity with predominant Enterobacter and Akkermansia, while Staphylococcus expanded after vancomycin treatment was terminated. In contrast, mice treated by vancomycin combined with MK-3415A also experienced decreased bacterial diversity during vancomycin treatment. However, these animals were able to recover their initial Blautia and Lactobacillus proportions, even though episodes of Staphylococcus overgrowth were detected by the end of the experiments. In conclusion, MK-3415A (actoxumab-bezlotoxumab) treatment facilitates normalization of the gut microbiota in CDI mice. It remains to be examined whether or not the prevention of recurrent CDI by the antitoxin antibodies observed in clinical trials occurs through modulation of microbiota.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_008
{ "answer_start": [ 615 ], "text": [ "bezlotoxumab" ] }
Mechanisms of protection against Clostridium difficile infection by the monoclonal antitoxin antibodies actoxumab and bezlotoxumab. Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) represents the most prevalent cause of antibiotic-associated gastrointestinal infections in health care facilities in the developed world. Disease symptoms are caused by the two homologous exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB. Standard therapy for CDI involves administration of antibiotics that are associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment paradigms that target the toxins rather than the organism itself. A combination of human monoclonal antibodies, actoxumab and bezlotoxumab, directed against TcdA and TcdB, respectively, has been shown to decrease the rate of recurrence in patients treated with standard-of-care antibiotics. However, the exact mechanism of antibody-mediated protection is poorly understood. In this study, we show that the antitoxin antibodies are protective in multiple murine models of CDI, including systemic and local (gut) toxin challenge models, as well as primary and recurrent models of infection in mice. Systemically administered actoxumab-bezlotoxumab prevents both the damage to the gut wall and the inflammatory response, which are associated with C. difficile in these models, including in mice challenged with a strain of the hypervirulent ribotype 027. Furthermore, mutant antibodies (N297Q) that do not bind to Fcγ receptors provide a level of protection similar to that of wild-type antibodies, demonstrating that the mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins and does not involve host effector functions. These data provide a mechanistic basis for the prevention of recurrent disease observed in CDI patients in clinical trials.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_009
{ "answer_start": [ 104 ], "text": [ "actoxumab" ] }
Mechanisms of protection against Clostridium difficile infection by the monoclonal antitoxin antibodies actoxumab and bezlotoxumab. Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) represents the most prevalent cause of antibiotic-associated gastrointestinal infections in health care facilities in the developed world. Disease symptoms are caused by the two homologous exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB. Standard therapy for CDI involves administration of antibiotics that are associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment paradigms that target the toxins rather than the organism itself. A combination of human monoclonal antibodies, actoxumab and bezlotoxumab, directed against TcdA and TcdB, respectively, has been shown to decrease the rate of recurrence in patients treated with standard-of-care antibiotics. However, the exact mechanism of antibody-mediated protection is poorly understood. In this study, we show that the antitoxin antibodies are protective in multiple murine models of CDI, including systemic and local (gut) toxin challenge models, as well as primary and recurrent models of infection in mice. Systemically administered actoxumab-bezlotoxumab prevents both the damage to the gut wall and the inflammatory response, which are associated with C. difficile in these models, including in mice challenged with a strain of the hypervirulent ribotype 027. Furthermore, mutant antibodies (N297Q) that do not bind to Fcγ receptors provide a level of protection similar to that of wild-type antibodies, demonstrating that the mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins and does not involve host effector functions. These data provide a mechanistic basis for the prevention of recurrent disease observed in CDI patients in clinical trials.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_010
{ "answer_start": [ 118 ], "text": [ "bezlotoxumab" ] }
Mechanisms of protection against Clostridium difficile infection by the monoclonal antitoxin antibodies actoxumab and bezlotoxumab. Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) represents the most prevalent cause of antibiotic-associated gastrointestinal infections in health care facilities in the developed world. Disease symptoms are caused by the two homologous exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB. Standard therapy for CDI involves administration of antibiotics that are associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment paradigms that target the toxins rather than the organism itself. A combination of human monoclonal antibodies, actoxumab and bezlotoxumab, directed against TcdA and TcdB, respectively, has been shown to decrease the rate of recurrence in patients treated with standard-of-care antibiotics. However, the exact mechanism of antibody-mediated protection is poorly understood. In this study, we show that the antitoxin antibodies are protective in multiple murine models of CDI, including systemic and local (gut) toxin challenge models, as well as primary and recurrent models of infection in mice. Systemically administered actoxumab-bezlotoxumab prevents both the damage to the gut wall and the inflammatory response, which are associated with C. difficile in these models, including in mice challenged with a strain of the hypervirulent ribotype 027. Furthermore, mutant antibodies (N297Q) that do not bind to Fcγ receptors provide a level of protection similar to that of wild-type antibodies, demonstrating that the mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins and does not involve host effector functions. These data provide a mechanistic basis for the prevention of recurrent disease observed in CDI patients in clinical trials.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_011
{ "answer_start": [ 663 ], "text": [ "actoxumab" ] }
Mechanisms of protection against Clostridium difficile infection by the monoclonal antitoxin antibodies actoxumab and bezlotoxumab. Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) represents the most prevalent cause of antibiotic-associated gastrointestinal infections in health care facilities in the developed world. Disease symptoms are caused by the two homologous exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB. Standard therapy for CDI involves administration of antibiotics that are associated with a high rate of disease recurrence, highlighting the need for novel treatment paradigms that target the toxins rather than the organism itself. A combination of human monoclonal antibodies, actoxumab and bezlotoxumab, directed against TcdA and TcdB, respectively, has been shown to decrease the rate of recurrence in patients treated with standard-of-care antibiotics. However, the exact mechanism of antibody-mediated protection is poorly understood. In this study, we show that the antitoxin antibodies are protective in multiple murine models of CDI, including systemic and local (gut) toxin challenge models, as well as primary and recurrent models of infection in mice. Systemically administered actoxumab-bezlotoxumab prevents both the damage to the gut wall and the inflammatory response, which are associated with C. difficile in these models, including in mice challenged with a strain of the hypervirulent ribotype 027. Furthermore, mutant antibodies (N297Q) that do not bind to Fcγ receptors provide a level of protection similar to that of wild-type antibodies, demonstrating that the mechanism of protection is through direct neutralization of the toxins and does not involve host effector functions. These data provide a mechanistic basis for the prevention of recurrent disease observed in CDI patients in clinical trials.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_012
{ "answer_start": [ 677 ], "text": [ "bezlotoxumab" ] }
Broad coverage of genetically diverse strains of Clostridium difficile by actoxumab and bezlotoxumab predicted by in vitro neutralization and epitope modeling. Clostridium difficile infections (CDIs) are the leading cause of hospital-acquired infectious diarrhea and primarily involve two exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB. Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab are human monoclonal antibodies that neutralize the cytotoxic/cytopathic effects of TcdA and TcdB, respectively. In a phase II clinical study, the actoxumab-bezlotoxumab combination reduced the rate of CDI recurrence in patients who were also treated with standard-of-care antibiotics. However, it is not known whether the antibody combination will be effective against a broad range of C. difficile strains. As a first step toward addressing this, we tested the ability of actoxumab and bezlotoxumab to neutralize the activities of toxins from a number of clinically relevant and geographically diverse strains of C. difficile. Neutralization potencies, as measured in a cell growth/survival assay with purified toxins from various C. difficile strains, correlated well with antibody/toxin binding affinities. Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab neutralized toxins from culture supernatants of all clinical isolates tested, including multiple isolates of the BI/NAP1/027 and BK/NAP7/078 strains, at antibody concentrations well below plasma levels observed in humans. We compared the bezlotoxumab epitopes in the TcdB receptor binding domain across known TcdB sequences and found that key substitutions within the bezlotoxumab epitopes correlated with the relative differences in potencies of bezlotoxumab against TcdB of some strains, including ribotypes 027 and 078. Combined with in vitro neutralization data, epitope modeling will enhance our ability to predict the coverage of new and emerging strains by actoxumab-bezlotoxumab in the clinic.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_013
{ "answer_start": [ 315 ], "text": [ "Actoxumab" ] }
Broad coverage of genetically diverse strains of Clostridium difficile by actoxumab and bezlotoxumab predicted by in vitro neutralization and epitope modeling. Clostridium difficile infections (CDIs) are the leading cause of hospital-acquired infectious diarrhea and primarily involve two exotoxins, TcdA and TcdB. Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab are human monoclonal antibodies that neutralize the cytotoxic/cytopathic effects of TcdA and TcdB, respectively. In a phase II clinical study, the actoxumab-bezlotoxumab combination reduced the rate of CDI recurrence in patients who were also treated with standard-of-care antibiotics. However, it is not known whether the antibody combination will be effective against a broad range of C. difficile strains. As a first step toward addressing this, we tested the ability of actoxumab and bezlotoxumab to neutralize the activities of toxins from a number of clinically relevant and geographically diverse strains of C. difficile. Neutralization potencies, as measured in a cell growth/survival assay with purified toxins from various C. difficile strains, correlated well with antibody/toxin binding affinities. Actoxumab and bezlotoxumab neutralized toxins from culture supernatants of all clinical isolates tested, including multiple isolates of the BI/NAP1/027 and BK/NAP7/078 strains, at antibody concentrations well below plasma levels observed in humans. We compared the bezlotoxumab epitopes in the TcdB receptor binding domain across known TcdB sequences and found that key substitutions within the bezlotoxumab epitopes correlated with the relative differences in potencies of bezlotoxumab against TcdB of some strains, including ribotypes 027 and 078. Combined with in vitro neutralization data, epitope modeling will enhance our ability to predict the coverage of new and emerging strains by actoxumab-bezlotoxumab in the clinic.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_014
{ "answer_start": [ 329 ], "text": [ "bezlotoxumab" ] }
Bezlotoxumab: First Global Approval. Bezlotoxumab (Zinplava™) is a human monoclonal antibody against Clostridium difficile toxin B developed by Merck & Co. In October 2016 it was approved in the USA for reducing the recurrence of C. difficile infection. This article summarizes the milestones in the development of bezlotoxumab leading to this first approval for use in patients receiving antibacterial drug treatment for C. difficile infection who are at high risk for recurrence of C. difficile infection.
List two human monoclonal antibodies against Clostridium difficile toxins.
5a7240aa2dc08e987e00000d_015
{ "answer_start": [ 37 ], "text": [ "Bezlotoxumab" ] }
Regulatory module involving FGF13, miR-504, and p53 regulates ribosomal biogenesis and supports cancer cell survival. The microRNA miR-504 targets TP53 mRNA encoding the p53 tumor suppressor. miR-504 resides within the fibroblast growth factor 13 (FGF13) gene, which is overexpressed in various cancers. We report that the FGF13 locus, comprising FGF13 and miR-504, is transcriptionally repressed by p53, defining an additional negative feedback loop in the p53 network. Furthermore, we show that FGF13 1A is a nucleolar protein that represses ribosomal RNA transcription and attenuates protein synthesis. Importantly, in cancer cells expressing high levels of FGF13, the depletion of FGF13 elicits increased proteostasis stress, associated with the accumulation of reactive oxygen species and apoptosis. Notably, stepwise neoplastic transformation is accompanied by a gradual increase in FGF13 expression and increased dependence on FGF13 for survival ("nononcogene addiction"). Moreover, FGF13 overexpression enables cells to cope more effectively with the stress elicited by oncogenic Ras protein. We propose that, in cells in which activated oncogenes drive excessive protein synthesis, FGF13 may favor survival by maintaining translation rates at a level compatible with the protein quality-control capacity of the cell. Thus, FGF13 may serve as an enabler, allowing cancer cells to evade proteostasis stress triggered by oncogene activation.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_001
{ "answer_start": [ 28 ], "text": [ "FGF13" ] }
Regulatory module involving FGF13, miR-504, and p53 regulates ribosomal biogenesis and supports cancer cell survival. The microRNA miR-504 targets TP53 mRNA encoding the p53 tumor suppressor. miR-504 resides within the fibroblast growth factor 13 (FGF13) gene, which is overexpressed in various cancers. We report that the FGF13 locus, comprising FGF13 and miR-504, is transcriptionally repressed by p53, defining an additional negative feedback loop in the p53 network. Furthermore, we show that FGF13 1A is a nucleolar protein that represses ribosomal RNA transcription and attenuates protein synthesis. Importantly, in cancer cells expressing high levels of FGF13, the depletion of FGF13 elicits increased proteostasis stress, associated with the accumulation of reactive oxygen species and apoptosis. Notably, stepwise neoplastic transformation is accompanied by a gradual increase in FGF13 expression and increased dependence on FGF13 for survival ("nononcogene addiction"). Moreover, FGF13 overexpression enables cells to cope more effectively with the stress elicited by oncogenic Ras protein. We propose that, in cells in which activated oncogenes drive excessive protein synthesis, FGF13 may favor survival by maintaining translation rates at a level compatible with the protein quality-control capacity of the cell. Thus, FGF13 may serve as an enabler, allowing cancer cells to evade proteostasis stress triggered by oncogene activation.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_002
{ "answer_start": [ 48 ], "text": [ "p53" ] }
TGFβ/Activin signalling is required for ribosome biogenesis and cell growth in Drosophila salivary glands. Signalling by TGFβ superfamily factors plays an important role in tissue growth and cell proliferation. In Drosophila, the activity of the TGFβ/Activin signalling branch has been linked to the regulation of cell growth and proliferation, but the cellular and molecular basis for these functions are not fully understood. In this study, we show that both the RII receptor Punt (Put) and the R-Smad Smad2 are strongly required for cell and tissue growth. Knocking down the expression of Put or Smad2 in salivary glands causes alterations in nucleolar structure and functions. Cells with decreased TGFβ/Activin signalling accumulate intermediate pre-rRNA transcripts containing internal transcribed spacer 1 regions accompanied by the nucleolar retention of ribosomal proteins. Thus, our results show that TGFβ/Activin signalling is required for ribosomal biogenesis, a key aspect of cellular growth control. Importantly, overexpression of Put enhanced cell growth induced by Drosophila Myc, a well-characterized inducer of nucleolar hypertrophy and ribosome biogenesis.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_003
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "TGFβ/Activin" ] }
TGFβ/Activin signalling is required for ribosome biogenesis and cell growth in Drosophila salivary glands. Signalling by TGFβ superfamily factors plays an important role in tissue growth and cell proliferation. In Drosophila, the activity of the TGFβ/Activin signalling branch has been linked to the regulation of cell growth and proliferation, but the cellular and molecular basis for these functions are not fully understood. In this study, we show that both the RII receptor Punt (Put) and the R-Smad Smad2 are strongly required for cell and tissue growth. Knocking down the expression of Put or Smad2 in salivary glands causes alterations in nucleolar structure and functions. Cells with decreased TGFβ/Activin signalling accumulate intermediate pre-rRNA transcripts containing internal transcribed spacer 1 regions accompanied by the nucleolar retention of ribosomal proteins. Thus, our results show that TGFβ/Activin signalling is required for ribosomal biogenesis, a key aspect of cellular growth control. Importantly, overexpression of Put enhanced cell growth induced by Drosophila Myc, a well-characterized inducer of nucleolar hypertrophy and ribosome biogenesis.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_004
{ "answer_start": [ 910 ], "text": [ "TGFβ/Activin" ] }
PTENβ is an alternatively translated isoform of PTEN that regulates rDNA transcription. PTEN is a critical tumour suppressor that is frequently mutated in human cancer. We have previously identified a CUG initiated PTEN isoform designated PTENα, which functions in mitochondrial bioenergetics. Here we report the identification of another N-terminal extended PTEN isoform, designated PTENβ. PTENβ translation is initiated from an AUU codon upstream of and in-frame with the AUG initiation sequence for canonical PTEN. We show that the Kozak context and a downstream hairpin structure are critical for this alternative initiation. PTENβ localizes predominantly in the nucleolus, and physically associates with and dephosphorylates nucleolin, which is a multifunctional nucleolar phosphoprotein. Disruption of PTENβ alters rDNA transcription and promotes ribosomal biogenesis, and this effect can be reversed by re-introduction of PTENβ. Our data show that PTENβ regulates pre-rRNA synthesis and cellular proliferation. These results demonstrate the complexity of the PTEN protein family and the diversity of its functions.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_005
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "PTEN" ] }
PTENβ is an alternatively translated isoform of PTEN that regulates rDNA transcription. PTEN is a critical tumour suppressor that is frequently mutated in human cancer. We have previously identified a CUG initiated PTEN isoform designated PTENα, which functions in mitochondrial bioenergetics. Here we report the identification of another N-terminal extended PTEN isoform, designated PTENβ. PTENβ translation is initiated from an AUU codon upstream of and in-frame with the AUG initiation sequence for canonical PTEN. We show that the Kozak context and a downstream hairpin structure are critical for this alternative initiation. PTENβ localizes predominantly in the nucleolus, and physically associates with and dephosphorylates nucleolin, which is a multifunctional nucleolar phosphoprotein. Disruption of PTENβ alters rDNA transcription and promotes ribosomal biogenesis, and this effect can be reversed by re-introduction of PTENβ. Our data show that PTENβ regulates pre-rRNA synthesis and cellular proliferation. These results demonstrate the complexity of the PTEN protein family and the diversity of its functions.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_006
{ "answer_start": [ 48 ], "text": [ "PTEN" ] }
Nucleostemin dysregulation contributes to ischemic vulnerability of diabetic hearts: Role of ribosomal biogenesis. Diabetes is a major health problem worldwide. As well-known, diabetes greatly increases cardiac vulnerability to ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) injury, but the underlying mechanisms remain elusive. Nucleostemin (NS) is a nucleolar protein that controls ribosomal biogenesis and exerts cardioprotective effects against I/R injury. However, whether NS-mediated ribosomal biogenesis regulates ischemic vulnerability of diabetic hearts remains unanswered. Utilizing myocardial I/R mouse models, we found that cardiac NS expression significantly increased in response to I/R in normal diet (ND)-fed mice. Surprisingly, cardiac NS failed to be upregulated in high fat diet (HFD)-induced diabetic mice, accompanied by obvious ribosomal dysfunction. Compared with ND group, cardiac specific overexpression of NS by adenovirus (AV) injection significantly restored I/R-induced ribosomal function enhancement, reduced cardiomyocyte apoptosis, improved cardiac function, and decreased infarct sizes in diabetic mice. Notably, co-treatment of homoharringtonine (HHT), a selective inhibitor of ribosomal function, totally blocked NS-mediated cardioprotective effects against I/R injury. Furthermore, in cultured cardiomyocytes, saturated fatty acids treatment, but not high glucose exposure, significantly inhibited simulated I/R-induced NS upregulation and ribosomal function improvement. In conclusion, these data for the first time demonstrate that NS dysregulation induced by saturated fatty acids exposure might be an important cause of increased ischemic vulnerability to I/R injury in diabetic hearts. Targeting NS dysregulation and subsequent ribosomal dysfunction could be a promising therapeutic strategy for diabetic I/R injury management.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_007
{ "answer_start": [ 309 ], "text": [ "Nucleostemin" ] }
Perturbation of RNA Polymerase I transcription machinery by ablation of HEATR1 triggers the RPL5/RPL11-MDM2-p53 ribosome biogenesis stress checkpoint pathway in human cells. Ribosome biogenesis is an energy consuming process which takes place mainly in the nucleolus. By producing ribosomes to fuel protein synthesis, it is tightly connected with cell growth and cell cycle control. Perturbation of ribosome biogenesis leads to the activation of p53 tumor suppressor protein promoting processes like cell cycle arrest, apoptosis or senescence. This ribosome biogenesis stress pathway activates p53 through sequestration of MDM2 by a subset of ribosomal proteins (RPs), thereby stabilizing p53. Here, we identify human HEATR1, as a nucleolar protein which positively regulates ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis. Downregulation of HEATR1 resulted in cell cycle arrest in a manner dependent on p53. Moreover, depletion of HEATR1 also caused disruption of nucleolar structure and activated the ribosomal biogenesis stress pathway - RPL5 / RPL11 dependent stabilization and activation of p53. These findings reveal an important role for HEATR1 in ribosome biogenesis and further support the concept that perturbation of ribosome biosynthesis results in p53-dependent cell cycle checkpoint activation, with implications for human pathologies including cancer.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_008
{ "answer_start": [ 1245 ], "text": [ "p53" ] }
Perturbation of RNA Polymerase I transcription machinery by ablation of HEATR1 triggers the RPL5/RPL11-MDM2-p53 ribosome biogenesis stress checkpoint pathway in human cells. Ribosome biogenesis is an energy consuming process which takes place mainly in the nucleolus. By producing ribosomes to fuel protein synthesis, it is tightly connected with cell growth and cell cycle control. Perturbation of ribosome biogenesis leads to the activation of p53 tumor suppressor protein promoting processes like cell cycle arrest, apoptosis or senescence. This ribosome biogenesis stress pathway activates p53 through sequestration of MDM2 by a subset of ribosomal proteins (RPs), thereby stabilizing p53. Here, we identify human HEATR1, as a nucleolar protein which positively regulates ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis. Downregulation of HEATR1 resulted in cell cycle arrest in a manner dependent on p53. Moreover, depletion of HEATR1 also caused disruption of nucleolar structure and activated the ribosomal biogenesis stress pathway - RPL5 / RPL11 dependent stabilization and activation of p53. These findings reveal an important role for HEATR1 in ribosome biogenesis and further support the concept that perturbation of ribosome biosynthesis results in p53-dependent cell cycle checkpoint activation, with implications for human pathologies including cancer.
List ribosomal biogenesis proteins.
5aa80873d6d6b54f79000013_009
{ "answer_start": [ 1129 ], "text": [ "HEATR1" ] }
DNA methylation regulates bromodomain-containing protein 2 expression during adipocyte differentiation. Obesity is characterized by excessive accumulation of white adipose tissue. Bromodomain-containing protein 2 (Brd2), which belongs to the bromodomain and extraterminal domain family of proteins, suppresses adipocyte differentiation. DNA methylation is critical for several differentiation processes and possibly in adipocyte differentiation. However, whether DNA methylation regulates the expression of Brd2 is not clear. In our study, we demonstrated that DNA methylation contributes to the regulation of Brd2 expression during pre-adipocyte differentiation. Brd2 mRNA levels were low in pre-adipocytes, increased in early adipocytes, and declined in mature adipocytes. To test whether and how Brd2 expression is regulated by DNA methylation during the differentiation of 3T3-L1 pre-adipocytes to adipocytes, cells were cultured in the presence of the methylation inhibitor 5-aza-2'-deoxycytidine (5-Aza). Pre-adipocytes and adipocytes exposed to 5-Aza exhibited a dose-dependent increase in Brd2 transcription levels, while only mature adipocytes exhibited increased expression of Brd2 protein. Subsequently, we tested the DNA methylation status of the Brd2 promoter region. Bisulfite-sequencing analysis revealed that six CpG sites in two predicted promoters of Brd2 were demethylated in early adipocytes and highly methylated in mature adipocytes. Digestion of bisulfite-converted PCR products of the Brd2 promoter region from 3T3-L1 cells with BstU1 (CGGC) revealed that the demethylation rate of the Brd2 promoter was consistent with Brd2 mRNA expression in differentiating 3T3-L1 cells. In conclusion, DNA demethylation of the Brd2 promoter region induced Brd2 expression during differentiation of 3T3-L1 cells into adipocytes.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_001
{ "answer_start": [ 214 ], "text": [ "Brd2" ] }
Therapeutic targeting of BET protein BRD4 delays murine lupus. BRD4 is a member of the BET (bromodomain and extraterminal domain) family proteins that can bind acetylated histones and influence transcription, which are considered as potential therapeutic targets in many distinct diseases. And the BET inhibitor JQ1 has been proven to be effective in suppressing multiple inflammatory and autoimmune diseases. This study aimed to examine the therapeutic potential of JQ1 on a lupus model, MRL-lpr mice. Ten-week-old MRL-lpr mice were treated with JQ1 (oral administration of 200mg/kg) or vehicle for 8weeks. The proteinuria, nephritic damage, serum biochemistry, autoantibodies and cytokines were examined. Splenocytes of MRL-lpr mice were isolated for in vitro experiments. Treatment with JQ1 significantly attenuated the progression of proteinuria and nephritis. The serum concentrations of anti-dsDNA antibody as well as B-cell activating factor (BAFF), interleukin (IL)-1β, IL-6, IL-17 and INF-γ were inhibited, and IL-10 augmented by JQ1. Importantly, JQ1 improved the survival of lupus mice. In vitro, BAFF, IL-1β, IL-6, IL-17 and INF-γ were inhibited, and IL-10 augmented by JQ1 (500nM) in the cultures of splenocytes from diseased MRL-lpr mice, which was further supported by a significant reduction in immune complex-mediated activation of human monocytes in vitro by JQ1. Taken together, JQ1 effectively alleviates lupus in MRL-lpr mice by suppressing BAFF, pro-inflammatory cytokines and autoimmunity, supporting the therapeutic value of JQ1 in lupus disease.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_002
{ "answer_start": [ 63 ], "text": [ "BRD4" ] }
Bdf1 Bromodomains Are Essential for Meiosis and the Expression of Meiotic-Specific Genes. Bromodomain and Extra-terminal motif (BET) proteins play a central role in transcription regulation and chromatin signalling pathways. They are present in unicellular eukaryotes and in this study, the role of the BET protein Bdf1 has been explored in Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Mutation of Bdf1 bromodomains revealed defects on both the formation of spores and the meiotic progression, blocking cells at the exit from prophase, before the first meiotic division. This phenotype is associated with a massive deregulation of the transcription of meiotic genes and Bdf1 bromodomains are required for appropriate expression of the key meiotic transcription factor NDT80 and almost all the Ndt80-inducible genes, including APC complex components. Bdf1 notably accumulates on the promoter of Ndt80 and its recruitment is dependent on Bdf1 bromodomains. In addition, the ectopic expression of NDT80 during meiosis partially bypasses this dependency. Finally, purification of Bdf1 partners identified two independent complexes with Bdf2 or the SWR complex, neither of which was required to complete sporulation. Taken together, our results unveil a new role for Bdf1 -working independently from its predominant protein partners Bdf2 and the SWR1 complex-as a regulator of meiosis-specific genes.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_003
{ "answer_start": [ 315 ], "text": [ "Bdf1" ] }
BRD3 and BRD4 BET Bromodomain Proteins Differentially Regulate Skeletal Myogenesis. Myogenic differentiation proceeds through a highly coordinated cascade of gene activation that necessitates epigenomic changes in chromatin structure. Using a screen of small molecule epigenetic probes we identified three compounds which inhibited myogenic differentiation in C2C12 myoblasts; (+)-JQ1, PFI-1, and Bromosporine. These molecules target Bromodomain and Extra Terminal domain (BET) proteins, which are epigenetic readers of acetylated histone lysine tail residues. BETi-mediated anti-myogenic effects were also observed in a model of MYOD1-mediated myogenic conversion of human fibroblasts, and in primary mouse and human myoblasts. All three BET proteins BRD2, BRD3 and BRD4 exhibited distinct and dynamic patterns of protein expression over the course of differentiation without concomitant changes in mRNA levels, suggesting that BET proteins are regulated at the post-transcriptional level. Specific BET protein knockdown by RNA interference revealed that BRD4 was required for myogenic differentiation, whereas BRD3 down-regulation resulted in enhanced myogenic differentiation. ChIP experiments revealed a preferential binding of BRD4 to the Myog promoter during C2C12 myoblast differentiation, co-incident with increased levels of H3K27 acetylation. These results have identified an essential role for BET proteins in the regulation of skeletal myogenesis, and assign distinct functions to BRD3 and BRD4.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_004
{ "answer_start": [ 752 ], "text": [ "BRD2" ] }
BRD3 and BRD4 BET Bromodomain Proteins Differentially Regulate Skeletal Myogenesis. Myogenic differentiation proceeds through a highly coordinated cascade of gene activation that necessitates epigenomic changes in chromatin structure. Using a screen of small molecule epigenetic probes we identified three compounds which inhibited myogenic differentiation in C2C12 myoblasts; (+)-JQ1, PFI-1, and Bromosporine. These molecules target Bromodomain and Extra Terminal domain (BET) proteins, which are epigenetic readers of acetylated histone lysine tail residues. BETi-mediated anti-myogenic effects were also observed in a model of MYOD1-mediated myogenic conversion of human fibroblasts, and in primary mouse and human myoblasts. All three BET proteins BRD2, BRD3 and BRD4 exhibited distinct and dynamic patterns of protein expression over the course of differentiation without concomitant changes in mRNA levels, suggesting that BET proteins are regulated at the post-transcriptional level. Specific BET protein knockdown by RNA interference revealed that BRD4 was required for myogenic differentiation, whereas BRD3 down-regulation resulted in enhanced myogenic differentiation. ChIP experiments revealed a preferential binding of BRD4 to the Myog promoter during C2C12 myoblast differentiation, co-incident with increased levels of H3K27 acetylation. These results have identified an essential role for BET proteins in the regulation of skeletal myogenesis, and assign distinct functions to BRD3 and BRD4.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_005
{ "answer_start": [ 767 ], "text": [ "BRD4" ] }
BRD3 and BRD4 BET Bromodomain Proteins Differentially Regulate Skeletal Myogenesis. Myogenic differentiation proceeds through a highly coordinated cascade of gene activation that necessitates epigenomic changes in chromatin structure. Using a screen of small molecule epigenetic probes we identified three compounds which inhibited myogenic differentiation in C2C12 myoblasts; (+)-JQ1, PFI-1, and Bromosporine. These molecules target Bromodomain and Extra Terminal domain (BET) proteins, which are epigenetic readers of acetylated histone lysine tail residues. BETi-mediated anti-myogenic effects were also observed in a model of MYOD1-mediated myogenic conversion of human fibroblasts, and in primary mouse and human myoblasts. All three BET proteins BRD2, BRD3 and BRD4 exhibited distinct and dynamic patterns of protein expression over the course of differentiation without concomitant changes in mRNA levels, suggesting that BET proteins are regulated at the post-transcriptional level. Specific BET protein knockdown by RNA interference revealed that BRD4 was required for myogenic differentiation, whereas BRD3 down-regulation resulted in enhanced myogenic differentiation. ChIP experiments revealed a preferential binding of BRD4 to the Myog promoter during C2C12 myoblast differentiation, co-incident with increased levels of H3K27 acetylation. These results have identified an essential role for BET proteins in the regulation of skeletal myogenesis, and assign distinct functions to BRD3 and BRD4.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_006
{ "answer_start": [ 758 ], "text": [ "BRD3" ] }
Brd4 inhibition attenuates unilateral ureteral obstruction-induced fibrosis by blocking TGF-β-mediated Nox4 expression. Uncovering new therapeutic targets for renal fibrosis holds promise for the treatment of chronic kidney diseases. Bromodomain and extra-terminal (BET) protein inhibitors have been shown to effectively ameliorate pathological fibrotic responses. However, the pharmacological effects and underlying mechanisms of these inhibitors in renal fibrosis remain elusive. In this study, we determined that the inhibition of Brd4, a BET family member, with a selective potent chemical inhibitor, JQ1, could prevent the development of renal fibrosis and block the progression of fibrosis in rats that have undergone unilateral ureteral obstruction (UUO). Inhibiting Brd4 with either JQ1 or genetic knockdown resulted in decreased expression of fibrotic genes such as α-smooth muscle actin, collagen IV and fibronectin both in UUO-induced fibrosis and upon TGF-β1 stimulation in HK-2 cells. Brd4 inhibition also suppressed the oxidative stress induced by UUO in vivo or by TGF-β1 in HK-2 cells. Moreover, Nox4, which is constitutively active in renal cells and is involved in the generation of hydrogen peroxide, was up-regulated during UUO-mediated fibrosis and induced by TGF-β1 in HK-2 cells, and this up-regulation could be blunted by Brd4 inhibition. Consistently, Nox4-mediated ROS generation and fibrotic gene expression were attenuated upon Brd4 inhibition. Further, the transcriptional activity of Nox4 was suppressed by JQ1 or siRNA against Brd4. Additionally, Smad3 and ERK1/2 phosphorylation, which are upstream signals of Nox4 expression, were inhibited both in JQ1-administered UUO rats and Brd4-inhibited HK-2 cells. In conclusion, these results indicated that the inhibition of Brd4 might protect against renal fibrosis by blocking the TGF-β-Nox4-ROS-fibrosis axis, suggesting that Brd4 could be a promising therapeutic target.
List BET proteins.
5aacdcf1fcf4565872000009_007
{ "answer_start": [ 534 ], "text": [ "Brd4" ] }
A Coxiella-like endosymbiont is a potential vitamin source for the Lone Star tick. Amblyomma americanum (Lone star tick) is an important disease vector in the United States. It transmits several human pathogens, including the agents of human monocytic ehrlichiosis, tularemia, and southern tick-associated rash illness. Blood-feeding insects (Class Insecta) depend on bacterial endosymbionts to provide vitamins and cofactors that are scarce in blood. It is unclear how this deficiency is compensated in ticks (Class Arachnida) that feed exclusively on mammalian blood. A bacterium related to Coxiella burnetii, the agent of human Q fever, has been observed previously within cells of A. americanum. Eliminating this bacterium (CLEAA, Coxiella-like endosymbiont of A. americanum) with antibiotics reduced tick fecundity, indicating that it is an essential endosymbiont. In an effort to determine its role within this symbiosis, we sequenced the CLEAA genome. While highly reduced (656,901 bp) compared with C. burnetii (1,995,281 bp), the CLEAA genome encodes most major vitamin and cofactor biosynthesis pathways, implicating CLEAA as a vitamin provisioning endosymbiont. In contrast, CLEAA lacks any recognizable virulence genes, indicating that it is not a pathogen despite its presence in tick salivary glands. As both C. burnetii and numerous "Coxiella-like bacteria" have been reported from several species of ticks, we determined the evolutionary relationship between the two bacteria. Phylogeny estimation revealed that CLEAA is a close relative of C. burnetii, but was not derived from it. Our results are important for strategies geared toward controlling A. americanum and the pathogens it vectors, and also contribute novel information regarding the metabolic interdependencies of ticks and their nutrient-provisioning endosymbionts.
What illness is transmitted by the Lone Star Tick, Amblyomma americanum?
5a96c74cfcd1d6a10c000029_001
{ "answer_start": [ 236 ], "text": [ "human monocytic ehrlichiosis" ] }
STARI, or Masters disease: Lone Star tick-vectored Lyme-like illness. Lyme-like illness (also known as southern tick-associated rash illness [STARI] or Masters disease) is vectored by the Lone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum). Lyme-like illness lesions, which are similar to the erythema migrans rash of Lyme disease, tend to have lymphocytic dermal infiltrates. With the exception of Borrelia lonestari, the possible causative agent or agents of Lyme-like illness have not been cultured. More research is needed to fully understand this newly recognized zoonosis. Clinicians are encouraged to increase their knowledge and awareness of this Lyme disease mimic.
What illness is transmitted by the Lone Star Tick, Amblyomma americanum?
5a96c74cfcd1d6a10c000029_002
{ "answer_start": [ 103 ], "text": [ "southern tick-associated rash illness [STARI] or Masters disease" ] }
Virulence of BotaniGard(®) to Second Instar Brown Marmorated Stink Bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål) (Heteroptera: Pentatomidae). The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål) (BMSB) is an exotic invasive insect originating in East Asia, currently causing significant damage to fruits, vegetables and other crops throughout most of the Mid-Atlantic states of the U.S. It also is a nuisance pest, entering homes in the fall in search of suitable overwintering sites. Two formulations of BotaniGard(®) with a strain of Beauveria bassiana (GHA) as the active ingredient were tested against second instar BMSB. Both the wettable powder and the emulsifiable suspension formulations were efficacious at 1 × 10⁷ conidia mL(-1), causing 67%-80% mortality 9 days post treatment and 95%-100% after 12 days. The wettable powder formulation was slightly more efficacious.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_001
{ "answer_start": [ 239 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Field trapping of the invasive brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys, with geometric isomers of methyl 2,4,6-decatrienoate. The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål), is a polyphagous pest indigenous to northeastern Asia where it damages various trees, vegetables, and leguminous crops. The bug was recently introduced into the U.S. and could potentially become a pest. In its native range, H. halys was reportedly attracted to the aggregation pheromone of the brown-winged green bug, Plautia stali, methyl (2 E,4 E,6 Z)-decatrienoate. We also observed that traps baited with this compound are attractive to H. halys. We additionally found that methyl (2 E,4 E,6 Z)-decatrienoate (as well as other isomeric methyl 2,4,6-decatrienoates) exposed to daylight in solutions and/or on dispensers used for field trapping can readily isomerize to form complex mixtures of isomers, thus causing a concern about lure stability and longevity. However, our studies demonstrated that preventing isomerization of methyl (2 E,4 E,6 Z)-decatrienoate in dispensers was not essential for field trapping of H. halys males, females, and nymphs. We also present evidence that traps baited with methyl (2 Z,4 E,6 Z)-decatrienoate and methyl (2 E,4 Z,6 Z)-decatrienoate (pheromone of Thyanta spp. pentatomids), as well as the mixtures of geometric isomers, attract H. halys. The ZEZ isomer, unknown in nature, as well as the EEZ isomer, elicited electrophysiological responses from antennae of H. halys males. The field data suggest that the presence of the EEZ but not ZEZ isomer in the lure is essential for attraction of H. halys, and that other isomers are not antagonistic and may even be needed for maximum attraction. Because the pheromone of H. halys is unknown at present, lures containing methyl (2 E,4 E,6 Z)-decatrienoate without protection from daylight are suitable for monitoring populations of H. halys late in the season.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_002
{ "answer_start": [ 239 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Global invasion network of the brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys. Human mediated transportation into novel habitats is a prerequisite for the establishment of non-native species that become invasive, so knowledge of common sources may allow prevention. The brown marmorated stink bug (BMSB, Halyomorpha halys) is an East Asian species now established across North America and Europe, that in the Eastern United States of America (US) and Italy is causing significant economic losses to agriculture. After US populations were shown to originate from Northern China, others have tried to source BMSB populations now in Canada, Switzerland, Italy, France, Greece, and Hungary. Due to selection of different molecular markers, however, integrating all the datasets to obtain a broader picture of BMSB's expansion has been difficult. To address this limitation we focused on a single locus, the barcode region in the cytochrome oxidase I mitochondrial gene, and analyzed representative BMSB samples from across its current global range using an Approximate Bayesian Computation approach. We found that China is the likely source of most non-native populations, with at least four separate introductions in North America and three in Europe. Additionally, we found evidence of one bridgehead event: a likely Eastern US source for the central Italy populations that interestingly share enhanced pest status.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_003
{ "answer_start": [ 333 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Landscape factors facilitating the invasive dynamics and distribution of the brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae), after arrival in the United States. The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys, a native of Asia, has become a serious invasive pest in the USA. H. halys was first detected in the USA in the mid 1990s, dispersing to over 41 other states. Since 1998, H. halys has spread throughout New Jersey, becoming an important pest of agriculture, and a major nuisance in urban developments. In this study, we used spatial analysis, geostatistics, and Bayesian linear regression to investigate the invasion dynamics and colonization processes of this pest in New Jersey. We present the results of monitoring H. halys from 51 to 71 black light traps that were placed on farms throughout New Jersey from 2004 to 2011 and examined relationships between total yearly densities of H. halys and square hectares of 48 landscape/land use variables derived from urban, wetland, forest, and agriculture metadata, as well as distances to nearest highways. From these analyses we propose the following hypotheses: (1) H. halys density is strongly associated with urban developments and railroads during its initial establishment and dispersal from 2004 to 2006; (2) H. halys overwintering in multiple habitats and feeding on a variety of plants may have reduced the Allee effect, thus facilitating movement into the southernmost regions of the state by railroads from 2005 to 2008; (3) density of H. halys contracted in 2009 possibly from invading wetlands or sampling artifact; (4) subsequent invasion of H. halys from the northwest to the south in 2010 may conform to a stratified-dispersal model marked by rapid long-distance movement, from railroads and wetland rights-of-way; and (5) high densities of H. halys may be associated with agriculture in southern New Jersey in 2011. These landscape features associated with the invasion of H. halys in New Jersey may predict its potential rate of invasion across the USA and worldwide.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_004
{ "answer_start": [ 249 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Invasive stink bug favors naïve plants: Testing the role of plant geographic origin in diverse, managed environments. With the introduction and establishment of exotic species, most ecosystems now contain both native and exotic plants and herbivores. Recent research identifies several factors that govern how specialist herbivores switch host plants upon introduction. Predicting the feeding ecology and impacts of introduced generalist species, however, remains difficult. Here, we examine how plant geographic origin, an indicator of shared co-evolutionary history, influences patterns of host use by a generalist, invasive herbivore, while accounting for variation in plant availability. The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys, is a highly polyphagous Asian herbivore and an economically important invasive pest in North America and Europe. In visual surveys of 220 plant taxa in commercial nurseries in Maryland, USA, H. halys was more abundant on non-Asian plants and selected these over Asian plants. The relationship between the relative use of plants and their availability was strongly positive but depended also on plant origin at two of our three sites, where the higher relative use of non-Asian plants was greatest for highly abundant taxa. These results highlight the importance of considering both plant origin and relative abundance in understanding the selection of host plants by invasive generalist herbivores in diverse, natural and urban forests.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_005
{ "answer_start": [ 767 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Electronically monitored labial dabbing and stylet 'probing' behaviors of brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys, in simulated environments. Brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål), (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae) is an invasive polyphagous agricultural and urban nuisance pest of Asian origin that is becoming widespread in North America and Europe. Despite the economic importance of pentatomid pests worldwide, their feeding behavior is poorly understood. Electronically monitored insect feeding (EMIF) technology is a useful tool in studies of feeding behavior of Hemiptera. Here we examined H. halys feeding behavior using an EMIF system designed for high throughput studies in environmental chambers. Our objectives were to quantify feeding activity by monitoring proboscis contacts with green beans, including labial dabbing and stylet penetration of the beans, which we collectively define as 'probes'. We examined frequency and duration of 'probes' in field-collected H. halys over 48 hours and we determined how environmental conditions could affect diel and seasonal periodicity of 'probing' activity. We found differences in 'probing' activity between months when the assays were conducted. These differences in activity may have reflected different environmental conditions, and they also coincide with what is known about the phenology of H. halys. While a substantial number of 'probes' occurred during scotophase, including some of the longest mean 'probe' durations, activity was either lower or similar to 'probing' activity levels during photophase on average. We found that temperature had a significant impact on H. halys 'probing' behavior and may influence periodicity of activity. Our data suggest that the minimal temperature at which 'probing' of H. halys occurs is between 3.5 and 6.1 °C (95% CI), and that 'probing' does not occur at temperatures above 26.5 to 29.6 °C (95% CI). We estimated that the optimal temperature for 'probing' is between 16 and 17 °C.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_006
{ "answer_start": [ 295 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Irritant contact dermatitis to the brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys. The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys, is native to Asia (China, Taiwan, Japan, and the Korean peninsula). It was first found in Allentown, Pa, in 1996 and has since spread across wide areas of the Eastern United States. As of October 2010, at least 26 states have reported the presence of the brown marmorated stink bug. It is considered an invasive species, and to the best of scientific knowledge, it was accidently introduced into the United States through transportation of goods from Asia. To date, no reports of human disease have been published in the literature. Fruit crop workers have complained of a slight allergic reaction to the chemicals released by the bug.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_007
{ "answer_start": [ 146 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Behavioral Response of the Brown Marmorated Stink Bug (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae) to Semiochemicals Deployed Inside and Outside Anthropogenic Structures During the Overwintering Period. The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål), is an invasive species from Asia capable of causing severe agricultural damage. It can also be a nuisance pest when it enters and exits anthropogenic overwintering sites. In recent years, pheromone lures and traps for H. halys have been developed and used to monitor populations in field studies. To date, no study has investigated the applicability of these monitoring tools for use indoors by building residents during the overwintering period. Herein, we 1) assessed when in late winter (diapause) and spring (postdiapause) H. halys begins to respond to its pheromone (10,11-epoxy-1-bisabolen-3-ol), 2) evaluated whether pheromone-based tools can be used reliably for monitoring H. halys adults in unheated and heated buildings, and 3) elucidated the potential for indoor management using pheromone-baited traps. A 2-yr trapping study suggested that H. halys began to respond reliably to pheromone-baited traps after a critical photoperiod of 13.5 h in the spring. Captures before that point were not correlated with visual counts of bugs in buildings despite robust populations, suggesting currently available pheromone-baited traps were ineffective for surveillance of diapausing H. halys. Finally, because baited traps captured only 8-20% of the adult H. halys known to be present per location, they were not an effective indoor management tool for overwintering H. halys. Our study contributes important knowledge about the capacity of H. halys to perceive its pheromone during overwintering, and the ramifications thereof for building residents with nuisance problems.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_008
{ "answer_start": [ 270 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Virulence of BotaniGard(®) to Second Instar Brown Marmorated Stink Bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål) (Heteroptera: Pentatomidae). The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål) (BMSB) is an exotic invasive insect originating in East Asia, currently causing significant damage to fruits, vegetables and other crops throughout most of the Mid-Atlantic states of the U.S. It also is a nuisance pest, entering homes in the fall in search of suitable overwintering sites. Two formulations of BotaniGard(®) with a strain of Beauveria bassiana (GHA) as the active ingredient were tested against second instar BMSB. Both the wettable powder and the emulsifiable suspension formulations were efficacious at 1 × 10⁷ conidia mL(-1), causing 67%-80% mortality 9 days post treatment and 95%-100% after 12 days. The wettable powder formulation was slightly more efficacious.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_009
{ "answer_start": [ 239 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Impact of the Invasive Brown Marmorated Stink Bug in North America and Europe: History, Biology, Ecology, and Management. The brown marmorated stink bug (BMSB), Halyomorpha halys (Stål), is an invasive pentatomid introduced from Asia into the United States, Canada, multiple European countries, and Chile. In 2010, BMSB populations in the mid-Atlantic United States reached outbreak levels and subsequent feeding severely damaged tree fruit as well as other crops. Significant nuisance issues from adults overwintering inside homes were common. BMSB is a highly polyphagous species with a strong dispersal capacity and high reproductive output, potentially enabling its spread and success in invaded regions. A greater understanding of BMSB biology and ecology and its natural enemies, the identification of the male-produced aggregation pheromone, and the recognition that BMSB disperses into crops from adjacent wooded habitats have led to the development of behavior-based integrated pest management (IPM) tactics. Much is still unknown about BMSB, and continued long-term collaborative studies are necessary to refine crop-specific IPM programs and enhance biological control across invaded landscapes.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_010
{ "answer_start": [ 229 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Climate Change Impacts on the Potential Distribution and Abundance of the Brown Marmorated Stink Bug (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae) With Special Reference to North America and Europe. The invasive brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål; Hemiptera: Pentatomidae), has recently emerged as a harmful pest of horticultural crops in North America and Europe. Native to East Asia, this highly polyphagous insect is spreading rapidly worldwide. Climate change will add further complications to managing this species in terms of both geographic distribution and population growth. This study used CLIMEX to compare potential H. halys distribution under recent and future climate models using one emission scenario (A2) with two different global circulation models, CSIRO Mk3.0 and MIROC-H. Simulated changes in seasonal phenology and voltinism were examined. Under the possible future climate scenarios, suitable range in Europe expands northward. In North America, the suitable H. halys range shifts northward into Canada and contracts from its southern temperature range limits in the United States due to increased heat stress. Prolonged periods of warm temperatures resulted in longer H. halys growing seasons. However, future climate scenarios indicated that rising summer temperatures decrease H. halys growth potential compared to recent climatic conditions, which in turn, may reduce mid-summer crop damage. Climate change may increase the number of H. halys generations produced annually, thereby enabling the invasive insect to become multivoltine in the northern latitudes of North America and Europe where it is currently reported to be univoltine. These results indicate prime horticultural production areas in Europe, the northeastern United States, and southeastern Canada are at greatest risk from H. halys under both current and possible future climates.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_011
{ "answer_start": [ 377 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Assessment of Feeding Acceptance and Injury of Kerman Pistachios, Pistacia vera, by Brown Marmorated Stink Bug (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae). In the United States, California (CA) is the primary commercial producer of pistachio nuts, Pistacia vera L. (Anacardiaceae). The brown marmorated stink bug (BMSB), Halyomorpha halys (Stål) (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae), an invasive and polyphagous insect pest from Asia, has established in urban areas in several pistachio-growing counties in CA. Breeding BMSB populations have not been detected in commercial pistachio acreage. However, the detection of BMSB in Kern and Fresno counties, major Kerman pistachio producing areas in CA, underscored key knowledge gaps on BMSB ecology in CA and motivated investigations on the susceptibility of pistachio nuts to BMSB feeding. Laboratory feeding trials conducted in quarantine under permit indicated that adult BMSB stylets can penetrate developing pistachio shells and associated feeding was correlated with kernel necrosis for nuts collected mid to late season (June to August 2016). Feeding damage estimates indicated that higher levels of kernel injury were associated with female BMSB when compared to feeding by male BMSB. These results suggest that there is probable risk of feeding damage to field grown pistachios from BMSB. The implications of this study for BMSB pest management in the CA pistachio system and future research directions are discussed.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_012
{ "answer_start": [ 400 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Cold Tolerance of Halyomorpha halys (Hemiptera: Pentatomidae) Across Geographic and Temporal Scales. The brown marmorated stink bug, Halyomorpha halys (Stål), is native to eastern Asia and is presently invading North America. Little is known about the exposure to and effects of winter temperatures in newly invaded regions on H. halys The overwintering habitats that this species utilizes vary greatly in their thermal buffering capacity. They naturally overwinter in aggregations beneath loose bark on trees and in cliff outcroppings, but will also commonly aggregate in buildings. Effects of cold temperatures such as mortality and freezing have yet to be quantified in the invading population. We report that H. halys is chill intolerant (i.e., dies before reaching its freezing point), and that the degree of cold tolerance of populations in North America differs by season, sex, and acclimation location. The mean winter supercooling point (± SEM) of individuals acclimated in Minnesota was -17.06 °C ± 0.13 and in Virginia was -13.90 °C ± 0.09. By using laboratory assays of lower lethal temperatures and ambient air temperature records, we accurately forecasted mortality for field experiments in Minnesota and Virginia. Temperature refugia provided by human-built structures are likely crucial for overwintering survival during atypically cold winters and possibly contribute to the northern geographic range expansion of this economically damaging insect in the temperate climates of North America.
List the continent of origin for the brown marmorated stinkbug(Halyomorpha halys)
5a9eb008d6d6b54f79000001_013
{ "answer_start": [ 180 ], "text": [ "Asia" ] }
Common Skin Rashes in Children. Because childhood rashes may be difficult to differentiate by appearance alone, it is important to consider the entire clinical presentation to help make the appropriate diagnosis. Considerations include the appearance and location of the rash; the clinical course; and associated symptoms, such as pruritus or fever. A fever is likely to occur with roseola, erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), and scarlet fever. Pruritus sometimes occurs with atopic dermatitis, pityriasis rosea, erythema infectiosum, molluscum contagiosum, and tinea infection. The key feature of roseola is a rash presenting after resolution of a high fever, whereas the distinguishing features in pityriasis rosea are a herald patch and a bilateral and symmetric rash in a Christmas tree pattern. The rash associated with scarlet fever usually develops on the upper trunk, then spreads throughout the body, sparing the palms and soles. Impetigo is a superficial bacterial infection that most commonly affects the face and extremities of children. Erythema infectiosum is characterized by a viral prodrome followed by the "slapped cheek" facial rash. Flesh-colored or pearly white papules with central umbilication occur with molluscum contagiosum, a highly contagious viral infection that usually resolves without intervention. Tinea is a common fungal skin infection in children that affects the scalp, body, groin, feet, hands, or nails. Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory skin condition that may present with a variety of skin changes.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_001
{ "answer_start": [ 352 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
Common Skin Rashes in Children. Because childhood rashes may be difficult to differentiate by appearance alone, it is important to consider the entire clinical presentation to help make the appropriate diagnosis. Considerations include the appearance and location of the rash; the clinical course; and associated symptoms, such as pruritus or fever. A fever is likely to occur with roseola, erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), and scarlet fever. Pruritus sometimes occurs with atopic dermatitis, pityriasis rosea, erythema infectiosum, molluscum contagiosum, and tinea infection. The key feature of roseola is a rash presenting after resolution of a high fever, whereas the distinguishing features in pityriasis rosea are a herald patch and a bilateral and symmetric rash in a Christmas tree pattern. The rash associated with scarlet fever usually develops on the upper trunk, then spreads throughout the body, sparing the palms and soles. Impetigo is a superficial bacterial infection that most commonly affects the face and extremities of children. Erythema infectiosum is characterized by a viral prodrome followed by the "slapped cheek" facial rash. Flesh-colored or pearly white papules with central umbilication occur with molluscum contagiosum, a highly contagious viral infection that usually resolves without intervention. Tinea is a common fungal skin infection in children that affects the scalp, body, groin, feet, hands, or nails. Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory skin condition that may present with a variety of skin changes.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_002
{ "answer_start": [ 441 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
Common Skin Rashes in Children. Because childhood rashes may be difficult to differentiate by appearance alone, it is important to consider the entire clinical presentation to help make the appropriate diagnosis. Considerations include the appearance and location of the rash; the clinical course; and associated symptoms, such as pruritus or fever. A fever is likely to occur with roseola, erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), and scarlet fever. Pruritus sometimes occurs with atopic dermatitis, pityriasis rosea, erythema infectiosum, molluscum contagiosum, and tinea infection. The key feature of roseola is a rash presenting after resolution of a high fever, whereas the distinguishing features in pityriasis rosea are a herald patch and a bilateral and symmetric rash in a Christmas tree pattern. The rash associated with scarlet fever usually develops on the upper trunk, then spreads throughout the body, sparing the palms and soles. Impetigo is a superficial bacterial infection that most commonly affects the face and extremities of children. Erythema infectiosum is characterized by a viral prodrome followed by the "slapped cheek" facial rash. Flesh-colored or pearly white papules with central umbilication occur with molluscum contagiosum, a highly contagious viral infection that usually resolves without intervention. Tinea is a common fungal skin infection in children that affects the scalp, body, groin, feet, hands, or nails. Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory skin condition that may present with a variety of skin changes.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_003
{ "answer_start": [ 836 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
Common Skin Rashes in Children. Because childhood rashes may be difficult to differentiate by appearance alone, it is important to consider the entire clinical presentation to help make the appropriate diagnosis. Considerations include the appearance and location of the rash; the clinical course; and associated symptoms, such as pruritus or fever. A fever is likely to occur with roseola, erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), and scarlet fever. Pruritus sometimes occurs with atopic dermatitis, pityriasis rosea, erythema infectiosum, molluscum contagiosum, and tinea infection. The key feature of roseola is a rash presenting after resolution of a high fever, whereas the distinguishing features in pityriasis rosea are a herald patch and a bilateral and symmetric rash in a Christmas tree pattern. The rash associated with scarlet fever usually develops on the upper trunk, then spreads throughout the body, sparing the palms and soles. Impetigo is a superficial bacterial infection that most commonly affects the face and extremities of children. Erythema infectiosum is characterized by a viral prodrome followed by the "slapped cheek" facial rash. Flesh-colored or pearly white papules with central umbilication occur with molluscum contagiosum, a highly contagious viral infection that usually resolves without intervention. Tinea is a common fungal skin infection in children that affects the scalp, body, groin, feet, hands, or nails. Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory skin condition that may present with a variety of skin changes.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_004
{ "answer_start": [ 807 ], "text": [ "rash" ] }
[Cutaneous eruptions of streptococcal and staphylococcal origin]. Scarlet fever consists in a diffuse exanthem associated with mucous changes. Classical scarlet fever is rare now, but other severe streptococcal infections have become more frequent, such as streptococcal toxic shock syndrome. The scarlatiniform exanthem and the shock observed in this disease are due to a streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin. Exfoliative toxins secreted by Staphylococcus aureus are responsible for the tender erythema and cutaneous scaling characteristic of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome of infancy. The so-called staphylococcal scarlet fever is probably an attenuated variant of this disease. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 (TSST1) is another staphylococcal toxin implied in the staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome. This disease is characterized by general symptoms and a scarlatiniform exanthem which are due to the effects of TSST1, acting as a superantigen.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_005
{ "answer_start": [ 74 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
[A dying clinical diagnosis of scarlet fever--the last sixteen years survey]. 11,119 patients with scarlet fever admitted in the last sixteen years, from 1973 to 1988, to Sapporo City General Hospital, were studied statistically on symptoms and laboratory findings. The results were summarized as follows: 1. Annual number of patients have reduced suddenly since 1981, and become zero in 1989. The patients increased in number during the winter season. Eighty two percent of the cases were between 3 and 8 years of age, and the average age was 5.8 year-old. 2. Cases of above-38 degrees C temperature were seen in about 81.4%, and from 2 to 5 days-duration of temperature were seen in 86.6% of the patients in the year 1976. Cases of above-moderate rash were observed in 68.2%, sever redness of throat in 29.9%, strawberry tongue in 86.3% and angular stomatitis in 37.7% of the patients. In recent statistical analysis (1982-1988), we found, however, a tendency that patients having stronger symptoms were being introduced to our hospital. 3. The higher rates of cases showing elevated ASD titer were seen in the elder patients and in the winter. C-reactive protein (CRP) titers were mostly in the range of (-) to (greater than or equal to 6+), having 2.4 + on an average. 4. Patients who developed into overt nephritis were not seen. Cases of microscopic hematuria (greater than or equal to 3 red cells/f in urine sediments), however, were observed in 1.1% (125/11,119). Sever complications were hardly seen. 5. Reappearance of beta-hemolytic streptococci (on a week after discharge) were found in 3.1% (241/7,877). 6. Reinfection or relapse cases of scarlet fever were found in 6.7% (642/9,585).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_006
{ "answer_start": [ 749 ], "text": [ "rash" ] }
[A dying clinical diagnosis of scarlet fever--the last sixteen years survey]. 11,119 patients with scarlet fever admitted in the last sixteen years, from 1973 to 1988, to Sapporo City General Hospital, were studied statistically on symptoms and laboratory findings. The results were summarized as follows: 1. Annual number of patients have reduced suddenly since 1981, and become zero in 1989. The patients increased in number during the winter season. Eighty two percent of the cases were between 3 and 8 years of age, and the average age was 5.8 year-old. 2. Cases of above-38 degrees C temperature were seen in about 81.4%, and from 2 to 5 days-duration of temperature were seen in 86.6% of the patients in the year 1976. Cases of above-moderate rash were observed in 68.2%, sever redness of throat in 29.9%, strawberry tongue in 86.3% and angular stomatitis in 37.7% of the patients. In recent statistical analysis (1982-1988), we found, however, a tendency that patients having stronger symptoms were being introduced to our hospital. 3. The higher rates of cases showing elevated ASD titer were seen in the elder patients and in the winter. C-reactive protein (CRP) titers were mostly in the range of (-) to (greater than or equal to 6+), having 2.4 + on an average. 4. Patients who developed into overt nephritis were not seen. Cases of microscopic hematuria (greater than or equal to 3 red cells/f in urine sediments), however, were observed in 1.1% (125/11,119). Sever complications were hardly seen. 5. Reappearance of beta-hemolytic streptococci (on a week after discharge) were found in 3.1% (241/7,877). 6. Reinfection or relapse cases of scarlet fever were found in 6.7% (642/9,585).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_007
{ "answer_start": [ 812 ], "text": [ "strawberry tongue" ] }
[A dying clinical diagnosis of scarlet fever--the last sixteen years survey]. 11,119 patients with scarlet fever admitted in the last sixteen years, from 1973 to 1988, to Sapporo City General Hospital, were studied statistically on symptoms and laboratory findings. The results were summarized as follows: 1. Annual number of patients have reduced suddenly since 1981, and become zero in 1989. The patients increased in number during the winter season. Eighty two percent of the cases were between 3 and 8 years of age, and the average age was 5.8 year-old. 2. Cases of above-38 degrees C temperature were seen in about 81.4%, and from 2 to 5 days-duration of temperature were seen in 86.6% of the patients in the year 1976. Cases of above-moderate rash were observed in 68.2%, sever redness of throat in 29.9%, strawberry tongue in 86.3% and angular stomatitis in 37.7% of the patients. In recent statistical analysis (1982-1988), we found, however, a tendency that patients having stronger symptoms were being introduced to our hospital. 3. The higher rates of cases showing elevated ASD titer were seen in the elder patients and in the winter. C-reactive protein (CRP) titers were mostly in the range of (-) to (greater than or equal to 6+), having 2.4 + on an average. 4. Patients who developed into overt nephritis were not seen. Cases of microscopic hematuria (greater than or equal to 3 red cells/f in urine sediments), however, were observed in 1.1% (125/11,119). Sever complications were hardly seen. 5. Reappearance of beta-hemolytic streptococci (on a week after discharge) were found in 3.1% (241/7,877). 6. Reinfection or relapse cases of scarlet fever were found in 6.7% (642/9,585).(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_008
{ "answer_start": [ 843 ], "text": [ "angular stomatitis" ] }
Scarlet fever and types of erythrogenic toxins produced by the infecting streptococcal strains. Group A streptococcal strains were isolated from the throats of 46 children suffering from scarlet fever. For detection of erythrogenic toxins (ETs), the culture supernatants were concentrated 100 times by ethanol precipitation and solubilisation in acetate buffer. ELISA was used to identify ETA and double immunodiffusion to identify ETB and ETC. The presence of the ETA gene was detected by a specific DNA probe. ETA (alone or in combination with ETB and/or ETC) was found in 51.9% of the strains, ETB (alone or in combination with ETA and/or ETC) in 76.9% and ETC (in combination with ETA and ETB) in 28.9%. Only 5.8% of strains did not produce any detectable ET. In SDS-PAGE, supernatants of ETB-producing strains showed a pronounced band in either the region of the proteinase zymogen or the active proteinase. There was no correlation between the type of erythrogenic toxin and the serological M or T type of the producing strain. The mitogenic potency of culture supernatants did not differ significantly irrespective of the toxin type(s) present. Culture supernatants of strains without a detectable amount of the known ETs were highly mitogenic, indicating the production of other streptococcal mitogens. A correlation with clinical symptoms was determined with regard to exanthema and fever. Strains producing two or three toxins caused a more intense exanthema. Patient temperature was higher (greater than or equal to 38 degrees C) when the infecting strain produced ETB. The toxin-producing patterns of the strains of this study were compared with those isolated during the last epidemic outbreak of scarlet fever in East Germany.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_009
{ "answer_start": [ 1392 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
[Streptococcal infection: variants and morphological manifestations]. 82 cases of streptococcal infection (SI) in children who died in 1977-1985 are studied. Higher incidence of SI in children particularly in those who died at home is emphasized. As a rule, the proper diagnosis was not established clinically. By manifestations the observations were divided into two groups: 1) SI with a pronounced generalization including a pharyngeal one (31 cases), 4 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); extrapharyngeal (7 cases), 6 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); 2) SI without pronounced generalization (localized) including 33 cases with the involvement of the lungs and tonsilla and having an ordinary course and 11 cases of a sudden death. SI structural manifestations involved development of necrotic or purulent-necrotic inflammation of a various degree in the area of the primary focus, regional lymph nodes as well as in the foci resulting from lymphohaematogenic and intracanalicular dissemination. The first symptoms of the septic process could be found even in case of death during the first day of the disease. The role of viral respiratory infection being the background for the SI development, especially for its pharyngeal variant and lung affection, is shown. The significance of thymomegaly and adrenal hypoplasia in the development of a sudden death is revealed.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_010
{ "answer_start": [ 485 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
[Streptococcal infection: variants and morphological manifestations]. 82 cases of streptococcal infection (SI) in children who died in 1977-1985 are studied. Higher incidence of SI in children particularly in those who died at home is emphasized. As a rule, the proper diagnosis was not established clinically. By manifestations the observations were divided into two groups: 1) SI with a pronounced generalization including a pharyngeal one (31 cases), 4 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); extrapharyngeal (7 cases), 6 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); 2) SI without pronounced generalization (localized) including 33 cases with the involvement of the lungs and tonsilla and having an ordinary course and 11 cases of a sudden death. SI structural manifestations involved development of necrotic or purulent-necrotic inflammation of a various degree in the area of the primary focus, regional lymph nodes as well as in the foci resulting from lymphohaematogenic and intracanalicular dissemination. The first symptoms of the septic process could be found even in case of death during the first day of the disease. The role of viral respiratory infection being the background for the SI development, especially for its pharyngeal variant and lung affection, is shown. The significance of thymomegaly and adrenal hypoplasia in the development of a sudden death is revealed.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_011
{ "answer_start": [ 551 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
[Streptococcal infection: variants and morphological manifestations]. 82 cases of streptococcal infection (SI) in children who died in 1977-1985 are studied. Higher incidence of SI in children particularly in those who died at home is emphasized. As a rule, the proper diagnosis was not established clinically. By manifestations the observations were divided into two groups: 1) SI with a pronounced generalization including a pharyngeal one (31 cases), 4 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); extrapharyngeal (7 cases), 6 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); 2) SI without pronounced generalization (localized) including 33 cases with the involvement of the lungs and tonsilla and having an ordinary course and 11 cases of a sudden death. SI structural manifestations involved development of necrotic or purulent-necrotic inflammation of a various degree in the area of the primary focus, regional lymph nodes as well as in the foci resulting from lymphohaematogenic and intracanalicular dissemination. The first symptoms of the septic process could be found even in case of death during the first day of the disease. The role of viral respiratory infection being the background for the SI development, especially for its pharyngeal variant and lung affection, is shown. The significance of thymomegaly and adrenal hypoplasia in the development of a sudden death is revealed.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_012
{ "answer_start": [ 471 ], "text": [ "rash" ] }
[Streptococcal infection: variants and morphological manifestations]. 82 cases of streptococcal infection (SI) in children who died in 1977-1985 are studied. Higher incidence of SI in children particularly in those who died at home is emphasized. As a rule, the proper diagnosis was not established clinically. By manifestations the observations were divided into two groups: 1) SI with a pronounced generalization including a pharyngeal one (31 cases), 4 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); extrapharyngeal (7 cases), 6 of them with a rash (scarlet fever); 2) SI without pronounced generalization (localized) including 33 cases with the involvement of the lungs and tonsilla and having an ordinary course and 11 cases of a sudden death. SI structural manifestations involved development of necrotic or purulent-necrotic inflammation of a various degree in the area of the primary focus, regional lymph nodes as well as in the foci resulting from lymphohaematogenic and intracanalicular dissemination. The first symptoms of the septic process could be found even in case of death during the first day of the disease. The role of viral respiratory infection being the background for the SI development, especially for its pharyngeal variant and lung affection, is shown. The significance of thymomegaly and adrenal hypoplasia in the development of a sudden death is revealed.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_013
{ "answer_start": [ 537 ], "text": [ "rash" ] }
Scarlet fever: A not so typical exanthematous pharyngotonsillitis (based on 171 cases). AIM: To describe the age, signs and clinical symptoms of children with scarlet fever at the present time, and to check whether they are equivalent to those with traditional streptococcal pharyngotonsillitis. STUDY DESIGN: An observational, retrospective study was conducted on the clinical records of 5500 children aged from 0 to 15 years attending a primary health care center. A record was made of the percentage of the cases in which signs and symptoms appear and the Centor score was calculated. Microbiological diagnosis of the disease was made using the rapid antigen-detection test or traditional culture. RESULTS: A total of 171 out of 252 scarlet fever diagnoses were microbiologically verified in 158 patients. The median age was 3.8 years (interquartile range: 2.91-4.78), with the majority (57%) under the age of 4 years. There was fever in 89% of the processes (95% CI: 84-94%), with a temperature of >38°C in 73% (95% CI: 65-80%), enlarged lymph nodes in 70% (95% CI: 58-82%), absence of cough in 73% (95% CI: 65-80%), and tonsillar exudate in only 24% (95% CI: 17-31%). The Centor score (n=105) was < 2 points in 86% (95% CI: 79-92%). The only difference regarding age is that episodes in patients under the age of 4 years old have significantly higher fever (>38°C) than the older ones (80% versus 63%. OR 3.13; 95% CI: 1.46-6.71). CONCLUSION: Scarlet fever pharyngotonsillitis differs from the traditional streptococcal pharyngotonsillitis, and its evaluation using clinical prediction rules such as Centor or McIsaac is questionable. The main diagnostic key must certainly be rash, regardless of patient age.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_014
{ "answer_start": [ 744 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
Scarlet fever: A not so typical exanthematous pharyngotonsillitis (based on 171 cases). AIM: To describe the age, signs and clinical symptoms of children with scarlet fever at the present time, and to check whether they are equivalent to those with traditional streptococcal pharyngotonsillitis. STUDY DESIGN: An observational, retrospective study was conducted on the clinical records of 5500 children aged from 0 to 15 years attending a primary health care center. A record was made of the percentage of the cases in which signs and symptoms appear and the Centor score was calculated. Microbiological diagnosis of the disease was made using the rapid antigen-detection test or traditional culture. RESULTS: A total of 171 out of 252 scarlet fever diagnoses were microbiologically verified in 158 patients. The median age was 3.8 years (interquartile range: 2.91-4.78), with the majority (57%) under the age of 4 years. There was fever in 89% of the processes (95% CI: 84-94%), with a temperature of >38°C in 73% (95% CI: 65-80%), enlarged lymph nodes in 70% (95% CI: 58-82%), absence of cough in 73% (95% CI: 65-80%), and tonsillar exudate in only 24% (95% CI: 17-31%). The Centor score (n=105) was < 2 points in 86% (95% CI: 79-92%). The only difference regarding age is that episodes in patients under the age of 4 years old have significantly higher fever (>38°C) than the older ones (80% versus 63%. OR 3.13; 95% CI: 1.46-6.71). CONCLUSION: Scarlet fever pharyngotonsillitis differs from the traditional streptococcal pharyngotonsillitis, and its evaluation using clinical prediction rules such as Centor or McIsaac is questionable. The main diagnostic key must certainly be rash, regardless of patient age.
Please list 6 symptoms of Scarlet fever.
5aa55b65d6d6b54f7900000e_015
{ "answer_start": [ 932 ], "text": [ "fever" ] }
A model for automated screening of thalassemia in hematology (math study). BACKGROUND: beta-thalassemia screening is primarily limited to pregnant women. The ratio of the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and red blood cell count (RBC) can be automatically calculated with any of the newer hematology analyzers. METHODS: The results of 398 patient screens were collected. Data from the set were divided into training and validation subsets. The Mentzer ratio was determined through a receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve on the first subset, and screened for thalassemia using the second subset. HgbA2 levels were used to confirm beta-thalassemia. RESULTS: We determined the correct decision point of the Mentzer index to be a ratio of 20. Physicians can screen patients using this index before further evaluation for beta-thalassemia (P < .05). CONCLUSION: The proposed method can be implemented by hospitals and laboratories to flag positive matches for further definitive evaluation, and will enable beta-thalassemia screening of a much larger population at little to no additional cost.
What is included in the Mentzer index?
5a736f0c3b9d13c708000007_001
{ "answer_start": [ 171 ], "text": [ "mean corpuscular volume" ] }
A model for automated screening of thalassemia in hematology (math study). BACKGROUND: beta-thalassemia screening is primarily limited to pregnant women. The ratio of the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and red blood cell count (RBC) can be automatically calculated with any of the newer hematology analyzers. METHODS: The results of 398 patient screens were collected. Data from the set were divided into training and validation subsets. The Mentzer ratio was determined through a receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve on the first subset, and screened for thalassemia using the second subset. HgbA2 levels were used to confirm beta-thalassemia. RESULTS: We determined the correct decision point of the Mentzer index to be a ratio of 20. Physicians can screen patients using this index before further evaluation for beta-thalassemia (P < .05). CONCLUSION: The proposed method can be implemented by hospitals and laboratories to flag positive matches for further definitive evaluation, and will enable beta-thalassemia screening of a much larger population at little to no additional cost.
What is included in the Mentzer index?
5a736f0c3b9d13c708000007_002
{ "answer_start": [ 205 ], "text": [ "red blood cell count" ] }
GeneComp, a new reference-based compressor for SAM files. The affordability of DNA sequencing has led to unprecedented volumes of genomic data. These data must be stored, processed, and analyzed. The most popular format for genomic data is the SAM format, which contains information such as alignment, quality values, etc. These files are large (on the order of terabytes), which necessitates compression. In this work we propose a new reference-based compressor for SAM files, which can accommodate different levels of compression, based on the specific needs of the user. In particular, the proposed compressor GeneComp allows the user to perform lossy compression of the quality scores, which have been proven to occupy more than half of the compressed file (when losslessly compressed). We show that the proposed compressor GeneComp overall achieves better compression ratios than previously proposed algorithms when working on lossless mode.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_001
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "GeneComp" ] }
GeneComp, a new reference-based compressor for SAM files. The affordability of DNA sequencing has led to unprecedented volumes of genomic data. These data must be stored, processed, and analyzed. The most popular format for genomic data is the SAM format, which contains information such as alignment, quality values, etc. These files are large (on the order of terabytes), which necessitates compression. In this work we propose a new reference-based compressor for SAM files, which can accommodate different levels of compression, based on the specific needs of the user. In particular, the proposed compressor GeneComp allows the user to perform lossy compression of the quality scores, which have been proven to occupy more than half of the compressed file (when losslessly compressed). We show that the proposed compressor GeneComp overall achieves better compression ratios than previously proposed algorithms when working on lossless mode.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_002
{ "answer_start": [ 613 ], "text": [ "GeneComp" ] }
GeneComp, a new reference-based compressor for SAM files. The affordability of DNA sequencing has led to unprecedented volumes of genomic data. These data must be stored, processed, and analyzed. The most popular format for genomic data is the SAM format, which contains information such as alignment, quality values, etc. These files are large (on the order of terabytes), which necessitates compression. In this work we propose a new reference-based compressor for SAM files, which can accommodate different levels of compression, based on the specific needs of the user. In particular, the proposed compressor GeneComp allows the user to perform lossy compression of the quality scores, which have been proven to occupy more than half of the compressed file (when losslessly compressed). We show that the proposed compressor GeneComp overall achieves better compression ratios than previously proposed algorithms when working on lossless mode.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_003
{ "answer_start": [ 828 ], "text": [ "GeneComp" ] }
NGC: lossless and lossy compression of aligned high-throughput sequencing data. A major challenge of current high-throughput sequencing experiments is not only the generation of the sequencing data itself but also their processing, storage and transmission. The enormous size of these data motivates the development of data compression algorithms usable for the implementation of the various storage policies that are applied to the produced intermediate and final result files. In this article, we present NGC, a tool for the compression of mapped short read data stored in the wide-spread SAM format. NGC enables lossless and lossy compression and introduces the following two novel ideas: first, we present a way to reduce the number of required code words by exploiting common features of reads mapped to the same genomic positions; second, we present a highly configurable way for the quantization of per-base quality values, which takes their influence on downstream analyses into account. NGC, evaluated with several real-world data sets, saves 33-66% of disc space using lossless and up to 98% disc space using lossy compression. By applying two popular variant and genotype prediction tools to the decompressed data, we could show that the lossy compression modes preserve >99% of all called variants while outperforming comparable methods in some configurations.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_004
{ "answer_start": [ 507 ], "text": [ "NGC" ] }
NGC: lossless and lossy compression of aligned high-throughput sequencing data. A major challenge of current high-throughput sequencing experiments is not only the generation of the sequencing data itself but also their processing, storage and transmission. The enormous size of these data motivates the development of data compression algorithms usable for the implementation of the various storage policies that are applied to the produced intermediate and final result files. In this article, we present NGC, a tool for the compression of mapped short read data stored in the wide-spread SAM format. NGC enables lossless and lossy compression and introduces the following two novel ideas: first, we present a way to reduce the number of required code words by exploiting common features of reads mapped to the same genomic positions; second, we present a highly configurable way for the quantization of per-base quality values, which takes their influence on downstream analyses into account. NGC, evaluated with several real-world data sets, saves 33-66% of disc space using lossless and up to 98% disc space using lossy compression. By applying two popular variant and genotype prediction tools to the decompressed data, we could show that the lossy compression modes preserve >99% of all called variants while outperforming comparable methods in some configurations.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_005
{ "answer_start": [ 603 ], "text": [ "NGC" ] }
NGC: lossless and lossy compression of aligned high-throughput sequencing data. A major challenge of current high-throughput sequencing experiments is not only the generation of the sequencing data itself but also their processing, storage and transmission. The enormous size of these data motivates the development of data compression algorithms usable for the implementation of the various storage policies that are applied to the produced intermediate and final result files. In this article, we present NGC, a tool for the compression of mapped short read data stored in the wide-spread SAM format. NGC enables lossless and lossy compression and introduces the following two novel ideas: first, we present a way to reduce the number of required code words by exploiting common features of reads mapped to the same genomic positions; second, we present a highly configurable way for the quantization of per-base quality values, which takes their influence on downstream analyses into account. NGC, evaluated with several real-world data sets, saves 33-66% of disc space using lossless and up to 98% disc space using lossy compression. By applying two popular variant and genotype prediction tools to the decompressed data, we could show that the lossy compression modes preserve >99% of all called variants while outperforming comparable methods in some configurations.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_006
{ "answer_start": [ 996 ], "text": [ "NGC" ] }
Improving transmission efficiency of large sequence alignment/map (SAM) files. Research in bioinformatics primarily involves collection and analysis of a large volume of genomic data. Naturally, it demands efficient storage and transfer of this huge amount of data. In recent years, some research has been done to find efficient compression algorithms to reduce the size of various sequencing data. One way to improve the transmission time of large files is to apply a maximum lossless compression on them. In this paper, we present SAMZIP, a specialized encoding scheme, for sequence alignment data in SAM (Sequence Alignment/Map) format, which improves the compression ratio of existing compression tools available. In order to achieve this, we exploit the prior knowledge of the file format and specifications. Our experimental results show that our encoding scheme improves compression ratio, thereby reducing overall transmission time significantly.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_007
{ "answer_start": [ 533 ], "text": [ "SAMZIP" ] }
Improving transmission efficiency of large sequence alignment/map (SAM) files. Research in bioinformatics primarily involves collection and analysis of a large volume of genomic data. Naturally, it demands efficient storage and transfer of this huge amount of data. In recent years, some research has been done to find efficient compression algorithms to reduce the size of various sequencing data. One way to improve the transmission time of large files is to apply a maximum lossless compression on them. In this paper, we present SAMZIP, a specialized encoding scheme, for sequence alignment data in SAM (Sequence Alignment/Map) format, which improves the compression ratio of existing compression tools available. In order to achieve this, we exploit the prior knowledge of the file format and specifications. Our experimental results show that our encoding scheme improves compression ratio, thereby reducing overall transmission time significantly.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_010
{ "answer_start": [ 533 ], "text": [ "SAMZIP" ] }
CSAM: Compressed SAM format. MOTIVATION: Next generation sequencing machines produce vast amounts of genomic data. For the data to be useful, it is essential that it can be stored and manipulated efficiently. This work responds to the combined challenge of compressing genomic data, while providing fast access to regions of interest, without necessitating decompression of whole files. RESULTS: We describe CSAM (Compressed SAM format), a compression approach offering lossless and lossy compression for SAM files. The structures and techniques proposed are suitable for representing SAM files, as well as supporting fast access to the compressed information. They generate more compact lossless representations than BAM, which is currently the preferred lossless compressed SAM-equivalent format; and are self-contained, that is, they do not depend on any external resources to compress or decompress SAM files. AVAILABILITY AND IMPLEMENTATION: An implementation is available at https://github.com/rcanovas/libCSAM CONTACT: [email protected] Information: Supplementary data is available at Bioinformatics online.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_011
{ "answer_start": [ 408 ], "text": [ "CSAM" ] }
GeneComp, a new reference-based compressor for SAM files. The affordability of DNA sequencing has led to unprecedented volumes of genomic data. These data must be stored, processed, and analyzed. The most popular format for genomic data is the SAM format, which contains information such as alignment, quality values, etc. These files are large (on the order of terabytes), which necessitates compression. In this work we propose a new reference-based compressor for SAM files, which can accommodate different levels of compression, based on the specific needs of the user. In particular, the proposed compressor GeneComp allows the user to perform lossy compression of the quality scores, which have been proven to occupy more than half of the compressed file (when losslessly compressed). We show that the proposed compressor GeneComp overall achieves better compression ratios than previously proposed algorithms when working on lossless mode.
Which algorithms are used for compression of SAM files?
5a76344e9e632bc066000003_012
{ "answer_start": [ 0 ], "text": [ "GeneComp" ] }
An overview of available drugs for management of opioid abuse during pregnancy. The prevalence of opioid abuse in the United States has been steadily increasing over the last several years among many major demographics, including pregnant women. Rise in prenatal opioid abuse has resulted in subsequent escalation of neonatal abstinence syndrome incidence, prompting the US Congress to pass the Protecting Our Infants Act of 2015. This act specifically calls for a critical review of current treatment options for prenatal opioid abuse which may ultimately lead to the development of better therapies and a decreased incidence of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Currently, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends methadone, buprenorphine, or buprenorphine/naloxone in the treatment of prenatal opioid abuse. In this review, each maintenance therapy treatment option is discussed and compared revealing inconsistencies in postpartum retention rates, effects on fetal development, and availability to patients due to restrictions in health care coverage. Although each of these treatment options reduces opioid abuse and potential negative outcomes for the fetus, the shortcomings of these drugs highlight the overarching need for an improved standard of care. Drug developers and lawmakers should consider that affordability, coverage by health insurance, and success in retention rates substantially impacts the decision of the patient and healthcare provider regarding utilization of a particular opioid maintenance therapy.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_001
{ "answer_start": [ 738 ], "text": [ "methadone" ] }
An overview of available drugs for management of opioid abuse during pregnancy. The prevalence of opioid abuse in the United States has been steadily increasing over the last several years among many major demographics, including pregnant women. Rise in prenatal opioid abuse has resulted in subsequent escalation of neonatal abstinence syndrome incidence, prompting the US Congress to pass the Protecting Our Infants Act of 2015. This act specifically calls for a critical review of current treatment options for prenatal opioid abuse which may ultimately lead to the development of better therapies and a decreased incidence of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Currently, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends methadone, buprenorphine, or buprenorphine/naloxone in the treatment of prenatal opioid abuse. In this review, each maintenance therapy treatment option is discussed and compared revealing inconsistencies in postpartum retention rates, effects on fetal development, and availability to patients due to restrictions in health care coverage. Although each of these treatment options reduces opioid abuse and potential negative outcomes for the fetus, the shortcomings of these drugs highlight the overarching need for an improved standard of care. Drug developers and lawmakers should consider that affordability, coverage by health insurance, and success in retention rates substantially impacts the decision of the patient and healthcare provider regarding utilization of a particular opioid maintenance therapy.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_002
{ "answer_start": [ 781 ], "text": [ "naloxone" ] }
An overview of available drugs for management of opioid abuse during pregnancy. The prevalence of opioid abuse in the United States has been steadily increasing over the last several years among many major demographics, including pregnant women. Rise in prenatal opioid abuse has resulted in subsequent escalation of neonatal abstinence syndrome incidence, prompting the US Congress to pass the Protecting Our Infants Act of 2015. This act specifically calls for a critical review of current treatment options for prenatal opioid abuse which may ultimately lead to the development of better therapies and a decreased incidence of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Currently, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends methadone, buprenorphine, or buprenorphine/naloxone in the treatment of prenatal opioid abuse. In this review, each maintenance therapy treatment option is discussed and compared revealing inconsistencies in postpartum retention rates, effects on fetal development, and availability to patients due to restrictions in health care coverage. Although each of these treatment options reduces opioid abuse and potential negative outcomes for the fetus, the shortcomings of these drugs highlight the overarching need for an improved standard of care. Drug developers and lawmakers should consider that affordability, coverage by health insurance, and success in retention rates substantially impacts the decision of the patient and healthcare provider regarding utilization of a particular opioid maintenance therapy.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_003
{ "answer_start": [ 749 ], "text": [ "buprenorphine" ] }
An overview of available drugs for management of opioid abuse during pregnancy. The prevalence of opioid abuse in the United States has been steadily increasing over the last several years among many major demographics, including pregnant women. Rise in prenatal opioid abuse has resulted in subsequent escalation of neonatal abstinence syndrome incidence, prompting the US Congress to pass the Protecting Our Infants Act of 2015. This act specifically calls for a critical review of current treatment options for prenatal opioid abuse which may ultimately lead to the development of better therapies and a decreased incidence of neonatal abstinence syndrome. Currently, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends methadone, buprenorphine, or buprenorphine/naloxone in the treatment of prenatal opioid abuse. In this review, each maintenance therapy treatment option is discussed and compared revealing inconsistencies in postpartum retention rates, effects on fetal development, and availability to patients due to restrictions in health care coverage. Although each of these treatment options reduces opioid abuse and potential negative outcomes for the fetus, the shortcomings of these drugs highlight the overarching need for an improved standard of care. Drug developers and lawmakers should consider that affordability, coverage by health insurance, and success in retention rates substantially impacts the decision of the patient and healthcare provider regarding utilization of a particular opioid maintenance therapy.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_004
{ "answer_start": [ 767 ], "text": [ "buprenorphine" ] }
Primary care management of opioid use disorders: Abstinence, methadone, or buprenorphine-naloxone? OBJECTIVE: To advise physicians on which treatment options to recommend for specific patient populations: abstinence-based treatment, buprenorphine-naloxone maintenance, or methadone maintenance. SOURCES OF INFORMATION: PubMed was searched and literature was reviewed on the effectiveness, safety, and side effect profiles of abstinence-based treatment, buprenorphine-naloxone treatment, and methadone treatment. Both observational and interventional studies were included. MAIN MESSAGE: Both methadone and buprenorphine-naloxone are substantially more effective than abstinence-based treatment. Methadone has higher treatment retention rates than buprenorphine-naloxone does, while buprenorphine-naloxone has a lower risk of overdose. For all patient groups, physicians should recommend methadone or buprenorphine-naloxone treatment over abstinence-based treatment (level I evidence). Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine-naloxone for patients at higher risk of treatment dropout, such as injection opioid users (level I evidence). Youth and pregnant women who inject opioids should also receive methadone first (level III evidence). If buprenorphine-naloxone is prescribed first, the patient should be promptly switched to methadone if withdrawal symptoms, cravings, or opioid use persist despite an optimal buprenorphine-naloxone dose (level II evidence). Buprenorphine-naloxone is recommended for socially stable prescription oral opioid users, particularly if their work or family commitments make it difficult for them to attend the pharmacy daily, if they have a medical or psychiatric condition requiring regular primary care (level IV evidence), or if their jobs require higher levels of cognitive functioning or psychomotor performance (level III evidence). Buprenorphine-naloxone is also recommended for patients at high risk of methadone toxicity, such as the elderly, those taking high doses of benzodiazepines or other sedating drugs, heavy drinkers, those with a lower level of opioid tolerance, and those at high risk of prolonged QT interval (level III evidence). CONCLUSION: Individual patient characteristics and preferences should be taken into consideration when choosing a first-line opioid agonist treatment. For patients at high risk of dropout (such as adolescents and socially unstable patients), treatment retention should take precedence over other clinical considerations. For patients with high risk of toxicity (such as patients with heavy alcohol or benzodiazepine use), safety would likely be the first consideration. However, the most important factor to consider is that opioid agonist treatment is far more effective than abstinence-based treatment.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_005
{ "answer_start": [ 491 ], "text": [ "methadone" ] }
Primary care management of opioid use disorders: Abstinence, methadone, or buprenorphine-naloxone? OBJECTIVE: To advise physicians on which treatment options to recommend for specific patient populations: abstinence-based treatment, buprenorphine-naloxone maintenance, or methadone maintenance. SOURCES OF INFORMATION: PubMed was searched and literature was reviewed on the effectiveness, safety, and side effect profiles of abstinence-based treatment, buprenorphine-naloxone treatment, and methadone treatment. Both observational and interventional studies were included. MAIN MESSAGE: Both methadone and buprenorphine-naloxone are substantially more effective than abstinence-based treatment. Methadone has higher treatment retention rates than buprenorphine-naloxone does, while buprenorphine-naloxone has a lower risk of overdose. For all patient groups, physicians should recommend methadone or buprenorphine-naloxone treatment over abstinence-based treatment (level I evidence). Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine-naloxone for patients at higher risk of treatment dropout, such as injection opioid users (level I evidence). Youth and pregnant women who inject opioids should also receive methadone first (level III evidence). If buprenorphine-naloxone is prescribed first, the patient should be promptly switched to methadone if withdrawal symptoms, cravings, or opioid use persist despite an optimal buprenorphine-naloxone dose (level II evidence). Buprenorphine-naloxone is recommended for socially stable prescription oral opioid users, particularly if their work or family commitments make it difficult for them to attend the pharmacy daily, if they have a medical or psychiatric condition requiring regular primary care (level IV evidence), or if their jobs require higher levels of cognitive functioning or psychomotor performance (level III evidence). Buprenorphine-naloxone is also recommended for patients at high risk of methadone toxicity, such as the elderly, those taking high doses of benzodiazepines or other sedating drugs, heavy drinkers, those with a lower level of opioid tolerance, and those at high risk of prolonged QT interval (level III evidence). CONCLUSION: Individual patient characteristics and preferences should be taken into consideration when choosing a first-line opioid agonist treatment. For patients at high risk of dropout (such as adolescents and socially unstable patients), treatment retention should take precedence over other clinical considerations. For patients with high risk of toxicity (such as patients with heavy alcohol or benzodiazepine use), safety would likely be the first consideration. However, the most important factor to consider is that opioid agonist treatment is far more effective than abstinence-based treatment.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_006
{ "answer_start": [ 467 ], "text": [ "naloxone" ] }
Primary care management of opioid use disorders: Abstinence, methadone, or buprenorphine-naloxone? OBJECTIVE: To advise physicians on which treatment options to recommend for specific patient populations: abstinence-based treatment, buprenorphine-naloxone maintenance, or methadone maintenance. SOURCES OF INFORMATION: PubMed was searched and literature was reviewed on the effectiveness, safety, and side effect profiles of abstinence-based treatment, buprenorphine-naloxone treatment, and methadone treatment. Both observational and interventional studies were included. MAIN MESSAGE: Both methadone and buprenorphine-naloxone are substantially more effective than abstinence-based treatment. Methadone has higher treatment retention rates than buprenorphine-naloxone does, while buprenorphine-naloxone has a lower risk of overdose. For all patient groups, physicians should recommend methadone or buprenorphine-naloxone treatment over abstinence-based treatment (level I evidence). Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine-naloxone for patients at higher risk of treatment dropout, such as injection opioid users (level I evidence). Youth and pregnant women who inject opioids should also receive methadone first (level III evidence). If buprenorphine-naloxone is prescribed first, the patient should be promptly switched to methadone if withdrawal symptoms, cravings, or opioid use persist despite an optimal buprenorphine-naloxone dose (level II evidence). Buprenorphine-naloxone is recommended for socially stable prescription oral opioid users, particularly if their work or family commitments make it difficult for them to attend the pharmacy daily, if they have a medical or psychiatric condition requiring regular primary care (level IV evidence), or if their jobs require higher levels of cognitive functioning or psychomotor performance (level III evidence). Buprenorphine-naloxone is also recommended for patients at high risk of methadone toxicity, such as the elderly, those taking high doses of benzodiazepines or other sedating drugs, heavy drinkers, those with a lower level of opioid tolerance, and those at high risk of prolonged QT interval (level III evidence). CONCLUSION: Individual patient characteristics and preferences should be taken into consideration when choosing a first-line opioid agonist treatment. For patients at high risk of dropout (such as adolescents and socially unstable patients), treatment retention should take precedence over other clinical considerations. For patients with high risk of toxicity (such as patients with heavy alcohol or benzodiazepine use), safety would likely be the first consideration. However, the most important factor to consider is that opioid agonist treatment is far more effective than abstinence-based treatment.
List 4 drugs used to treat opioid addiction or overdose
5aa13fd3d6d6b54f79000003_007
{ "answer_start": [ 453 ], "text": [ "buprenorphine" ] }