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In ICDAS — II, score 2 indicates?: (A) First enamel visual change, (B) Distinct enamel change, (C) Microcavitation, (D) Underlying dentin shadow | Answer is B. None |
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What is the pattern of inheritance in the given pedigree chart: (A) Holandric inheritance, (B) Mitochondrial inheritance, (C) X linked dominant inheritance, (D) Autosomal donminant inheritance | Answer is B. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited only by Mother. So mother trammits disease related to Mitochondria to all her children. |
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Pharyngeconjunctival fever is caused by -: (A) Adenovirus 3 and 7, (B) Adenovirus 11, 21, (C) Adenovirus 40, 41, (D) Adenovirus 8, 19 | Answer is A. Adenovirus causes pharyngitis, pneumonia, ARD, pharyngoconjunctival fever, EKC, acute follicular conjunctivitis, diarrhea, and acute hemorrhagic fever. Pharyngeoconjunctival fever is usually associated with serotypes 3,7 and 14. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 |
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IQ = 51 –: (A) Mild MR, (B) Moderate MR, (C) Severe MR, (D) Profound MR | Answer is A. IQ between 50-70 is mild mental retardation. |
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All of the following are example of nominal scale except:: (A) Race, (B) Sex, (C) Body weight, (D) Socio-economic status | Answer is C. None |
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All of the following are essential criteria for defining perinatal asphyxia EXCEPT?: (A) Persistence of APGAR score of 5-7 for >5 minutes, (B) Prolonged umbilical aerial blood pH <7.0, (C) Presence of neurological manifestations in the immediate neonatal period, (D) Evidence of multiorgan dysfunction in the immediate neonatal period | Answer is A. Essential criteria for defining perinatal asphyxia include: Persistence of APGAR score of 0-3 for >5 minutes Prolonged acidemia (pH <7.0) on an umbilical aerial blood sample Neurological manifestations, e.g. seizures, coma, hypotonia or hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) in the immediate neonatal period Evidence of multiorgan dysfunction in the immediate neonatal period |
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All of the following are drugs for ATT except ?: (A) Kanamycin, (B) Cycloserine, (C) 5-flucytosine, (D) Ofloxacin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5-flucytosine Antitubercular drugs o First line --> Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin, pyrazinamide. o Second line --> Thiacetazone, PAS, ethionamide, cycloserine, kanamycin, amikacin, capreomycin, ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, clarithromycin, Azithromycin, rifabutin. |
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Which of the following are acid fast positive with 20% sulphuric acid:: (A) M. avium, (B) M. leprae, (C) M. tuberculosis, (D) Nocardia | Answer is C. Ans. (c) M. tuberculosis Features M. tuberculosis M. leprae Acid fastness Resist decolorization by 20% H2SO4 Resist decolorization by 5% H2SO4 Alcohol fastness Present Absent Culture Possible Not possible Niacin Positive (also some strain of M. microti) Negative Generation time 14-15 hours 12-1 3 days Remember:- Nocardia resist 1-4% of sulphuric acid (weakly acid fast). |
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True about measles –: (A) Koplik spot appears in prodromal stage, (B) Fever stops after onset of rash, (C) Vaccine given at 9 month, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Measles vaccine is given at the age of 9 months of age. |
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In acute knee injuries with swelling and hemahrosis with muscle spasm, which of the following tests in most sensitive to detect anterior cruciate ligament injury?: (A) Lachman's test, (B) Pivot shift test, (C) Apley's grinding test, (D) Anterior drawer test | Answer is A. The Lachman test is the most sensitive and specific clinical test for anterior cruciate ligament injury. It is especially useful because it can be performed even in an acutely painful knee when the knee is painful and swollen. Ref: Campbell's Operative Ohopaedics, 11th Edition, Page 2440; Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adult, 5th Edition, Pages 1902-3; Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation Board Review, Sara J. Cuccurullo, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, Musculoskeletal Medicine, Page 240 |
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Which of the following antitubercular drugs do not need to be adjusted in presence of renal failure ?: (A) Rifampicin, (B) INH, (C) Ethambutol, (D) Pyrazinamide | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rifampicin o Antitubercular drugs which do not require dose adjustment in renal failure : Rifampicin Rifabutin Rifapentine |
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An acutely ill 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency depament. The patient is febrile and markedly hypotensive, and her mental status is obtunded. Numerous petechial and purpuric hemorrhages are scattered over the trunk, and aspiration of a lesion reveals neutrophils engulfing gram-negative diplococci. Serum sodium is markedly decreased, and serum potassium is increased. Coagulation testing reveals increased prothrombin time, activated paial thromboplastin time, and fibrin-fibrinogen split products. Which of the following is most likely?: (A) Conn syndrome, (B) Hyperprolactinoma, (C) Neuroblastoma, (D) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome | Answer is D. - Given pt is presenting with signs & symptoms of Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome, a devastating consequence of disseminated meningococcal infection. - This disease is characterized by hemorrhagic destruction of adrenals complicated by disseminated intravascular coagulation. |
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Which of the following is an example of a reverse transcriptase?: (A) Gyrase, (B) Helicase, (C) Telomerase, (D) RNA polymerase | Answer is C. Telomerase reverse transcriptase (abbreted to TE, or hTE in humans) is a catalytic subunit of the enzyme telomerase, which, together with the telomerase RNA component (TERC), comprises the most impoant unit of the telomerase complex. Telomerases are pa of a distinct subgroup of RNA-dependent polymerases. Telomerase lengthens telomeres in DNA strands, thereby allowing senescent cells that would otherwise become postmitotic and undergo apoptosis to exceed the Hayflick limit and become potentially immoal, as is often the case with cancerous cells. To be specific, TE is responsible for catalyzing the addition of nucleotides in a TTAGGG sequence to the ends of a chromosome's telomeres. This addition of repetitive DNA sequences prevents degradation of the chromosomal ends following multiple rounds of replication. |
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Amino acid used in the synthesis of purines ?: (A) Glycine, (B) Ornithine, (C) Alanine, (D) Threonine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Glycine Amino acids involved in purine synthesis - Glycine, aspaate, glutamine.Amino acids involved in pyrimidine synthesis - Glutamine, aspaic acid (aspaate). |
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Which of the following is true about Non-specific interstitial pneumonia?: (A) Early appearance of honey combing on CT, (B) Males are affected more commonly than female, (C) Common in elderly age group, (D) Associated with good prognosis | Answer is D. Ans. d. Associated with good prognosis Non-specific interstitial pneumonia is associated with good prognosis. `Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP) patients have diffuse interstitial lung disease of unknown etiology whose lung biopsies fail to show diagnostic features of any of the other well-characterized interstitial diseases. It is impoant to recognize it, since these patients have a much better prognosis than do those with Usual Interstitial Pneumonia Nonspecific Interstitial Pneumonia Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP) patients have diffuse interstitial lung disease of unknown etiology whose lung biopsies fail to show diagnostic features of any of the other well-characterized interstitial diseases. It is impoant to recognize it, since these patients have a much better prognosis than do those with Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP) Nonspecific Interstitial Pneumonia Morphology Cellular pattern Fibrosing pattern Consists of mild to moderate chronic interstitial inflammation, containing lymphocytes and a few plasma cells with uniform or patchy distribution Consists of diffuse or patchy, interstitialfibrosis without the temporal heterogeneity that is characteristic of UIP. Clinical Features: Patients present with dyspnea and cough of several months duration. They are typically between 46 and 55 years of age, those having the NSIP cellular pattern being somewhat younger than those with fibrosing pattern or UIP. Patients with cellular pattern have a better outcome than do those with fibrosing pattern and UIP. |
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Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies: (A) Adductor pollicis, (B) Flexor digitorum superficialis, (C) 1st Lumbrical, (D) 2nd Lumbrical | Answer is A. Muscles supplied by deep branch of ulnar nerve are - Muscles of hypothenar eminence, medial two lumbricals , 4-1 dorsal interossei muscles and 4-1 palmar interossei and adductor pollicis 1st and 2nd lumbricals are supplied by digital nerves from median nerve. Nerve supplying flexor digitorum superficialis comes from median nerve in the cubital fossa. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 182 |
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Larvae of Ascaris lumbricoidis most commonly causes?: (A) Cardiac symptoms, (B) Respiratory symptoms, (C) Genitourinary symptoms, (D) Cerebral symptoms | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Respiratory symptoms Clinical manifestations of ascariasis can be divided into two groups :- Due to adult worm : Adult worm causes malnutrition, abdominal pain, anorexia, intestinal obstruction, appendicitis, obstructive jaundice, pancreatitis, intestinal perforation and allergic manifestations. in Due to migrating larva : Loeffler's syndrome (eosinophilic pneumonia). |
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Acute adrenal insufficiency can present as: (A) Acute abdomen with abdominal tenderness, nausea, vomiting and fever, (B) Neurologic disease with decreased responsiveness progressing to stupor and coma, (C) Hypovolemic shock, (D) All of the above. | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Presentation in Acute Adrenal Insufficiency* Acute adrenal insufficiency usually occurs after a prolonged period of nonspecific complaints and is more frequently observed in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, due to the loss of both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid secretion.* Postural hypotension may progress to hypovolemic shock.* Adrenal insufficiency may mimic features of acute abdomen with abdominal tenderness, nausea, vomiting, and fever.* In some cases, the primary presentation may resemble neurologic disease, with decreased responsiveness, progressing to stupor and coma.* An adrenal crisis can be triggered by an intercurrent illness, surgical or other stress, or increased glucocorticoid inactivation (e.g., hyperthyroidism). |
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OATP 1B1/2 gene mutation is seen in: (A) Gilbert syndrome, (B) Rotor syndrome, (C) Crigler Najjar syndrome, (D) Dubin Johnson syndrome | Answer is B. OATP 1B1/2 gene mutation - Rotor syndrome
ABCCA gene mutation - Dubin johnson syndrome |
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Definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease is done by?: (A) Rectal Manometry, (B) Barium enema, (C) Rectal Biopsy, (D) Enteroclysis | Answer is C. Hirschsprung's disease - is characterised by the absence of ganglionic cells in the distal colon and rectum - it occurs due to the failure of migration of neural crest cells to distal bowel segments - affects cells in both - myenteric and submucosal plexuses - functional obstruction developes in the affected pa. It can be anatomically divided into four types according to the length of the aganglionic segment: sho segment disease: ~75% rectal and distal sigmoid colonic involvement only long segment:~15% typically extends to splenic flexure/transverse colon total colonic aganglionosis:~7.5% (range 2-13%) also known as Zuezler-Wilson syndrome occasional extension of aganglionosis into the small bowel ultrasho segment disease 3-4 cm of internal anal spinchter only controversial entity - Definitive diagnosis :- by rectal biopsy Barium enema demonstrates cone shape transition zone and reversal of rectosigmoid ratio. Most impoant sign on barium enema is a sudden change of caliber from the narrow aganglionic segment and dilated proximal bowel |
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Periaicular calcification is seen in -: (A) RA, (B) Pseudogout, (C) OA, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pseudogout Periaicular soft tissue calcification Haematoma Crystal ahropathy (Gout, Pseudogout) Dermatomyositis Tumoral calcinosis Myositis ossificans Scleroderma Synol osteochondromatosis Synol sarcoma |
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Kaposi's sarcoma is a tumour of:: (A) Blood vessels, (B) Reticuloendothetial system, (C) Striated muscles, (D) Smooth muscles | Answer is A. None |
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A patint complains of intermittent claudication,dizziness and headache,likely cardiac lesion is-: (A) TOF, (B) ASD, (C) PDA, (D) Coarctation of aoa | Answer is A. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a cardiac anomaly that refers to a combination of four related hea defects that commonly occur together. The four defects are: Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Tetralogy of Fallot results in low oxygenation of blood. This is due to: Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the left ventricle the ventricular septal defect (VSD) Preferential flow of the mixed blood from both ventricles through the aoa because of the obstruction to flow through the pulmonary valve. This is known as a right-to-left shunt. Infants with TOF -a cyanotic hea disease- have low blood oxygen saturation.Blood oxygenation varies greatly from one patient to another depending on the severity of the anatomic defects.Typical ranges vary from 60% to around 90%.[Depending on the degree of obstruction, symptoms vary from no cyanosis or mild cyanosis to profound cyanosis at bih.If the baby is not cyanotic then it is sometimes referred to as a "pink tet".Other symptoms include a hea murmur which may range from almost imperceptible to very loud, difficulty in feeding, failure to gain weight, retarded growth and physical development, labored breathing (dyspnea) on exeion, clubbing of the fingers and toes, and polycythemiaThe baby may turn blue with breast feeding or crying. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 453 |
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Which is true about Klebsiella infections?: (A) Most clinical isolates are obtained from the respiratory tract., (B) Predisposing factors for Klebsiella pneumonia include alcoholism, diabetes mellitus, (C) Klebsiella is closely related to Pseudomonas., (D) Detecting Klebsiella growth from a sputum culture obtained from an intubated patient mandates treat ment with an aminoglycoside or a third-generation cephalosporin. | Answer is B. Predisposing factors for Klebsiella .............. Klebsiella and the related Serratia and Enterobacter are the most impoant enteric organisms other than E. coli to infect humans. Although respiratory disease is impoant (Klebsiella accounts for 1 % or less of community-acquired pneumonia), most clinical isolates now come from the urinary tract. All three genera are impoant pulmonary nosocomial pathogens. However, merely finding these organisms growing in the sputum of a very ill hospitalized patient does not necessarily implicate the bacteria as pathogenic in that paicular circumstance and may indicate colonization rather than infection. Clinical context and procurement of the sample in a sterile fashion (transtracheal aspiration, bronchoscopy) will aid in the diagnosis Chronic alcoholics, diabetics, and those with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for Klebsiella pneumonia, a difficult disease to treat because of the frequency of suppurative complications (empyema and abscess) with the associated requirement for prolonged (>2 weeks) therapy. |
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In which leukemia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia is most common: (A) ALL, (B) AML, (C) CMIL, (D) CLL | Answer is D. None |
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Chronic Burrowing ulcer is caused by:: (A) Microaerophilic streptococci, (B) Peptostreptococcus, (C) Streptococcus viridans, (D) Streptococcus pyogenes | Answer is A. Microaerophilic streptococci ''This type of ulcer is due to symbiotic action of tnicroaerophilic non-haemolytic streptococci and haemolytic staphylococcus aureus" - S. Das Chronic burrowing ulcers or Meleney's ulcers are seen in the post-operative wounds either after the operation for perforated viscus or for drainage of empyema thoracis. Clinicaly it is an undermined ulcer with lot of granulation tissue in the floor. This condition is painful, toxaemic, and the general condition deteriorates without treatment. Textbook of Surgery by ljazAhsan writes -"The microaerophilic streptococcus causes infections that develop slowly. Chronic burrowing ulcer and chronic cutaneous gangrene are good examples. Radical drainage is necessary .for cure, antibiotics alone being useless." |
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Drug of choice for neurocysticercosis is:: (A) Praziquantel, (B) Albendazole, (C) Levamisole, (D) Piperazine | Answer is B. Out of the two anthelmintics effective in killing cysticerci, albendazole is now preferred over praziquantel for the following reasons: * The course of treatment is shoer (8-15 day) compared to praziquantel (15-30 days). * Cure rates in terms of resolution of symptoms and disappearance of cysts are higher (75-85% with albendazole) than praziquantel (50-60%). * Coicosteroids (which have to be given concurrently) enhance the absorption of albendazole, but lower the blood levels of praziquantel. * Albendazole is cheaper. ESSENTIALS OF PHARMACOLOGY page no. 856 |
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Which of the following about severe combined immunodeficiency is not true -: (A) Due to deficiency of adenylate kinase, (B) Toxicity to leucocytes due to accumulation of dAMP, (C) Both cellular and humoral immunity affected, (D) Bone marrow transplantation is the treatment | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Due to deficiency of adenylate kinase |
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Strain of V. cholerae in Bengal -: (A) 0:37, (B) 0.096527778, (C) 0:17, (D) 0:40 | Answer is B. None |
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The following radiograph shows:: (A) Fusion in 22, (B) Gemination in 22, (C) Concrescence in 22, (D) Dilaceration in 21 | Answer is B. Gemination
Geminated teeth are anomalies which arise from an attempt at the division of a single tooth germ by an invagination, with resultant incomplete formation of two teeth. The structure is usually one with two completely or incompletely separated crowns that have a single root and root canal. It is seen in deciduous as well as permanent dentition, and in some reported cases, appears to exhibit a hereditary tendency. It is not always possible to differentiate between gemination and a case in which there has been a fusion between a normal tooth and a supernumerary tooth.
Radiological signs
The tooth has a notched incisal margin with a confluent or partially joined pulp canal system. |
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Pancreatitis is a common complication of which one of the following :: (A) Zidovudine, (B) Didanosine, (C) Zalcitabine, (D) Stavudine | Answer is B. None |
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In Ulnar nerve injury in arm, all of the following are seen except?: (A) Hypothenar atrophy, (B) Adduction of thumb, (C) Loss of sensation of medial 1/3 of the hand, (D) Claw hand | Answer is B. Adduction of thumb. Injury to the Ulnar nerve Ulnar nerve is most commonly injured at the elbow, where it lies behind the medial epicondyle and at the wrist where it lies in front of flexor retinaculum. In high ulnar nerve injury at or proximal to elbow, all the muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve in the forearm and hand are paralyzed whereas in low ulnar nerve palsy, there is sparing of the forearm muscles (in flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus). Sensory deficit are same in both high & low ulnar nerve injury. |
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True about sickle anemia is?: (A) Leucopenia, (B) Decreased ESR, (C) Microcardia, (D) Ringedsideroblast | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Decreased ESR Investigation1) Peripheral smear shows sickle cells, target cells and Howell - Jolly bodies.2) ESR is decreased (only important anemia in which ESR is decreased, in most of other anemias ESR is increased).3) There is positive sickling test with a reducing substance like sodium metabisulfite.4) Hb electrophoresis shows two bands in heterozygous state/sickle cell trait (40% HbS & 60% HbA) and one bands in homozygous state (only HbS). HbS is slower moving than HbA towards positive electrode.5) Bone changes on X-ray showA. Fish mouth vertebraeB. Crew hair cut (hair on end) appearance of skull.(Hair on end appearance' is also seen in thalassemia, hereditary spherocytosis and G6PD deficiency.)6)There may be cardiomegaly and leukocytosis.7) Gamma Gandy bodies (nodules of hemosiderine and calcium deposition in spleen) are found. |
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Drug of choice for acute severe asthma is:-: (A) Sho acting beta 2 agonists, (B) Long acting beta 2 agonist, (C) Oral theophylline, (D) Inhaled ipratropium bromide | Answer is A. Sho acting beta 2 agonists like salbutamol are drug of choice for acute severe asthma Condition Drug of choice Bronchial Asthma Acute attack Salbutamol Acute attack in pregnancy Salbutamol Acute attack during labour Ipratropium Acute attack in patients on beta blocker therapy Ipratropium Prophylaxis Coicosteroids Exercise-induced asthma Acute attack Salbutamol Prophylaxis Coicosteroids Aspirin-induced asthma Acute attack Salbutamol Prophylaxis Coicosteroids Brittle asthma Type 1 S.C. Terbutaline infusion Type 2 S.C. Adrenaline |
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A factor that is likely to increase the duration of action of a drug D that is partially metabolized by CYP3A4 in the liver is:: (A) Chronic administration of phenobarbital with the drug, (B) Chronic administration of cimetidine with the drug, (C) Displacement from tissues binding sites by another drug, (D) Chronic administration of rifampicin | Answer is B. - Microsomal enzyme inducers- Rifampicin, Phenobarbital- will increase the activity of enzymes, leading to decreased duration of action of a drug.
- Microsomal enzyme inhibitor- Cimetidine- will decrease the activity of enzyme resulting in increased duration of action of the drug.
- A drug displaced from the binding site gets easily metabolized. |
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The number of muscle fibers innervated by a motor axon is smallest in: (A) Gastrocnemius, (B) Orbicularis oculi, (C) Single unit smooth muscle, (D) Soleus | Answer is B. The extraocular and hand muscles have an innervations ratio of 3 to 6 whereas gastrocnemius and back muscle has a ratio of 2000.(Refer Medical Physiology by Guyton & Hall, 12th edition, page no: 96) |
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This arrangement of myofibrils are found in: (A) Dilated cardiomyopathy, (B) Constrictive cardiomyopathy, (C) Fibroelastic cardiomyopathy, (D) Hyperophic cardiomyopathy | Answer is D. Refer robbins 9/e 569 Hyperophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a disease in which the hea muscle (myocardium) becomes abnormally thick (hyperophied). The thickened hea muscle can make it harder for the hea to pump blood. Hyperophic cardiomyopathy often goes undiagnosed because many people with the disease have few, if any, symptoms and can lead normal lives with no significant problems. However, in a small number of people with HCM, the thickened hea muscle can cause shoness of breath, chest pain or problems in the hea's electrical system, resulting in life-threatening abnormal hea rhythms (arrhythmias). |
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Which of the following may cause biliary obstruction -: (A) Ancylostoma, (B) Entrobius, (C) Strongyloides, (D) Clonorchis | Answer is D. In most cases the disease tends to remain low grade and chronic producing only minor symptoms of abdominal distress,intermittent diarrhea and liver pain or tenderness.C.sinensis has been linked to bile duct carcinoma.It is mostly observed in areas where clonorchiasis is endemic (refer pgno:126 baveja 3 rd edition) |
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False regarding Parasuicide?: (A) Also known as attempted suicide, (B) Mostly seen in psychological disturbances, (C) Conscious, impulse, manipulative act to get rid of an intolerable situation, (D) Hanging is the most common form | Answer is D. Also known as attempted suicide/ pseudocide. Mostly seen in psychological disturbances. Conscious, impulse, manipulative act to get rid of an intolerable situation. POISONING ( drug ingestion )is the most common form. |
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Intra-tumoral calcification in the brain is seen in all except?: (A) Craniopharyngioma, (B) Meningioma, (C) Oligodendroglioma, (D) Hemangioblastoma | Answer is D. Intratumoral calcification develops in the slow-growing tumors like Craniopharyngioma Meningioma Oligodendroglioma -Hemangioblastoma is a highly vascular tumor. |
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Most common type of supracondylar fracture in children: (A) Posteromedial extension, (B) Posterolateral extension, (C) Anteromedial flexion, (D) Anterolateral flexion | Answer is A. One of the most serious fractures in childhood. Caused by fall on an out stretched hand. Fracture line extends transversely through the distal metaphysis of humerus just above the condyles. The distal fragment may be displaced in the following directions: Posterior or backward shift Posterior tilt Proximal shift Medial or lateral shift Medial tilt Internal rotation Ref: Maheshwari and Mhaskar 6e pg 97 |
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Soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, the treatment of choice is:: (A) Local excision, (B) Excision and bone grafting, (C) Amputation, (D) Radiotherapy | Answer is B. Treatment for GCT at commoner sites is as given in Table Site Treatment of choice Lower end of femur Excision with Turn-o-Plasty Upper end of tibia Excision with Turn-o-Plasty Lower end of radius Excision with fibular grafting Lower end of ulna Excision Upper end of fibula Excision |
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Oncocytes are found in all of the following, except:: (A) Thyroid, (B) Kidneys, (C) Pituitary, (D) Pineal body | Answer is D. Pineal body |
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If a Mandibular canine has bifurcated roots, they are most commonly placed:: (A) Mesial and distal, (B) Facial and lingual, (C) Mesiobuccal and distobuccal, (D) Mesiolingual and distolingual | Answer is B. None |
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True statement about esophageal varices is:: (A) 90 % of cirrhotic patients have varices at the time of diagnosis, (B) Bleeding cirrhotic varices moality is 90%, (C) Variceal hemorrhage is the most common fatal complication of cirrhosis, (D) Varices is not possible in the absence of cirrhosis | Answer is C. Epidemiology of esophageal varices and correlation with liver disease At the time of diagnosis, 30% of cirrhotic patients have esophageal varices, and 90% after approximately 10 years. Bleeding from esophageal varices is associated with a moality rate of 20% at 6 weeks, Variceal bleeding is the most common fatal complication of cirrhosis. Some patients develop varices and hemorrhage early in the course of the disease, even in the absence of cirrhosis. Ref: WGO Practice Guidelines Esophageal varices |
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Which of the following drug is NOT effective against chemotherapy induced vomiting?: (A) Aprepitant, (B) Hyoscine, (C) Metoclopramide, (D) Ondansetron | Answer is B. Ans. (b) HyoscineRef: KDT 6th ed. / 646-47 |
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A patient presents with acute renal failure with normal ultrasound abdomen repo Next most useful investigation is-: (A) Intravenous pyelography, (B) DTPA scan, (C) Retrograde pyelography, (D) X-ray abdomen and CT scan. | Answer is B. DTPA A renal scan involves the use of radioactive material to examine your kidneys and assess their function. A renal scan is also known as a renal scintigraphy, renal imaging, or a renogram. During this procedure, a technician injects a radioactive material called a radioisotope into your vein. The radioisotope releases gamma rays. A gamma camera or scanner can detect gamma rays from outside your body. The gamma camera scans the kidney area. It tracks the radioisotope and measures how the kidneys process it. The camera also works with a computer to create images. These images detail the structure and functioning of the kidneys based on how they interact with the radioisotope. Images from a renal scan can show both structural and functional abnormalities. This helps doctors diagnose a kidney problem in its earlier stages without invasive techniques or surgery Ref Harrison20th edition pg 223 |
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A Patient presented with Hypokalemia, Severe Hypertension, and Metabolic Alkalosis. The diagnosis is: (A) Liddle syndrome, (B) Bartter syndrome, (C) Gitelman syndrome, (D) Renal tubular acidosis | Answer is A. (A) Liddle syndrome[?]Liddle's Syndrome: Autosomal dominant & is characterized by activating mutation of collecting duct Na+ channel with enhanced sodium reabsorption.oLow renin, low aldosterone levels.oClinical picture mimics Primary Hyperaldosteronism: Hypertension, Hypokalemia & Alkalosis.oIncreased activity of the Epithelial Sodium Channel (E-Na Ch):-Activating kidneys to excrete potassium retaining excessive sodium & water, leading to hypertension.-Classically manifest severe hypertension with hypokalemia, unresponsive to spironolactone yet sensitive to amiloride.oHypertension & hypokalemia are, however, variable aspects of the Liddle's phenotype; more consistent features include a blunted aldosteirone response to ACTH & reduced urinary aldosterone excretion.oIt is a 'gain of function' mutation in the gene encoding ENaC of the collecting tubule resulting in autonomous function of these channel without the influence of aldosterone.oCan be differentiated from Primary Hyperaldosteronism by normal Na+ level and low aldosterone and reninOther OptionsCONGENITAL HYPOKALEMIA ASSOCIATED SYNDROMES[?]Bartter's Syndrome (BS):-Loss of the transport functions of the TALH nephron segments causes hereditary hypokalemic alkalosis.-Typically suffer from polyuria & polydipsia, due to the reduction in renal concentrating ability. May have an increase in urinary calcium excretion & 20% are hypomagnesemia-Marked activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis.-Antenatal patients suffer from marked electrolyte wasting, polyhydramnios, and hypercalciuria with nephrocalcinosis; renal prostaglandin synthesis and excretion are significantly increased, accounting for much of the systemic symptoms.-Presence of five disease genes for BS, all of them functioning in some aspect of regulated Na+,K+ & Cl- transport by the TALH.[?]Gitelman's Syndrome (GS):-Loss of the transport functions of the DCT nephron segments causes hereditary hypokalemic alkalosis.-Genetically homogeneous, caused almost exclusively by loss-of-function mutations in thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl- co transporter of DCT.-Uniformly hypomagnesemic & exhibit marked hypocalciuria, rather than the hypercalciuria typically seen in BS; urinary calcium excretion is thus a critical diagnostic test in GS.-May suffer from chondrocalcinosis, an abnormal deposition of Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate (CPPD) in joint cartilage.[?]Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis:-Defects in multiple renal tubular transport pathways are associated with hypokalemia.-Loss-of-function mutations in subunits of the acidifying-H+-ATPase in alpha-intercalated cells cause hypokalemic distal renal tubular acidosis, as do many acquired disorders of the distal nephron.[?]Cushing's Syndrome:-Hypokalemia may also occur with systemic increasing in glucocorticoids.-Increase in pituitary ACTH incidence of hypokalemia is only 10%, whereas, 60-100% in patients with ectopic secretion of ACTH. |
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Scabies is caused by a small mite that burrows into the skin. The disease is best described by which one of the following statements?: (A) It is caused by a species of Sarcoptes, (B) Secondary bacterial infection is rare, (C) It is synonymous with Kawasaki's syndrome, (D) It is best diagnosed by biopsy of the inflammatory region around the mite bite | Answer is A. Sarcoptes scabiei is a small mite that burrows into human skin. Itching is significant, and a vesicular eruption, which often becomes secondarily infected with bacteria, develops. Diagnosis is made by microscopic detection of the mites. Gamma benzene hexachloride (Kwell), a topical insecticide, is an effective treatment for scabies. A number of etiologic agents have been proposed for Kawasaki's disease (KD), among them mites, but there is no evidence that mites either cause or are vectors of KD. |
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Where is bruit heard in thyroid gland: (A) Upper pole, (B) Lower pole, (C) Middle pole, (D) Lateral side | Answer is A. Thrill is felt in the upper pole of the thyroid and also bruit on auscultation. It is because in the upper pole, superior thyroid aery enters the gland superficially and so thrill and bruit can easily be felt. In the lower pole inferior thyroid aery enters the gland from deeper plane and so thrill cannot be felt. Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 463. |
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Which of the following enzyme is constituent of HMP shunt: (A) Glucose 6 Phosphatase, (B) Hexokinase, (C) G6P dehydrogenase, (D) Phosphorylase | Answer is C. None |
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A 45 year old man presents to a physician with back pain and facial pain. Physical examination demonstrates coarse facial features and kyphosis. Laboratory examination is remarkable for elevated alkaline phosphatase. .X-ray studies demonstrate skull thickening with narrowing of foramina, and bowing of the femur and tibia. Bone biopsy reveals a mosaic pattern of bone spicules with prominent osteoid seams. Which of the following neoplasms occurs at an increased frequency in patients with this disorder?: (A) Astrocytoma, (B) Hodgkin's lymphoma, (C) Meningioma, (D) Osteosarcoma | Answer is D. The phrase "mosaic pattern" of newly formed woven bone is a specific tip-off for Paget's disease of bone, and is not seen in other bone conditions. The clinical and radiologic presentation are typical; an increased hat size may also be a clue. In its early stages, Paget's disease is characterised by osteolysis, producing patchwork areas of bone resorption with bizarre, large osteoclasts. In the middle stage of the disease, secondary osteoblastic activity compensates with new bone formation, producing the mosaic pattern. In late Paget's, the bones are dense and osteosclerotic. Paget's disease is suspected to be related to prior viral infection, but the cause remains mysterious. Complications include myelophthisic anemia, high output cardiac failure, pain secondary to nerve compression, deformities secondary to skeletal changes, and in about 1% of patients, osteosarcoma or other sarcoma, typically involving the jaw, pelvis, or femur. An increased incidence of astrocytomas is associated with tuberous sclerosis.Hodgkin's lymphoma is usually a disease of young adults, although older patients may have the lymphocyte-depleted form.Meningiomas are mostly benign tumors that affect adults, especially females. There may be an association with breast cancer, possibly related to high estrogen states. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 19. Pathology of the Bones and Joints. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. |
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Pubic symphysis is which type of joint: (A) Synol, (B) Fibrous, (C) Cailaginous, (D) Syndesmoses | Answer is C. Primary cailaginous joints Known as "synchondroses". These bones are connected by hyaline cailage and sometimes occur between ossification centers.This cailage may ossify with age.Examples in humans are the "growth plates" between ossification centers in long bones. These joints here allow for only a little movement, such as in the spine or ribs.Secondary cailaginous joints Known as "symphysis". Fibrocailaginous and hyaline joints, usually occurring in the midlineExamples in human anatomy would be the manubriosternal joint (between the manubrium and the sternum), interveebral discs, and the pubic symphysis. |
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Most common cause of urinary tract infection in children is -: (A) EColi, (B) Klebsiella sp., (C) Psedomonas Aerognosa, (D) Candida | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., E Coli o Bacterial infections are the most common cause of UTI, with E coli being the most frequent pathogen, causing 75- 90% of UTIs. Other bacterial sources of UTI include the following:# Klebsiella species# Proteus species# Enterococcus species# Staphylococcus saprophyticus, especially among female adolescents and sexually active females# Streptococcus group B, especially among neonates# Pseudomonas aeruginosao Fungi (Candida species) may also cause UTIs, especially after instrumentation of the urinary tract. Adenovirus is a rare cause of UTI and may cause hemorrhagic cystitis. |
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Deep perineal pouch in males does not include:: (A) Pudendal nerve, (B) Sphincter urethrae, (C) Long perineal nerve, (D) Dorsal nerve of penis | Answer is C. Coronal section of pelvis. Deep perineal pouch is located between the superior and inferior layers of the urogenital diaphragm. Long perineal nerve is located in the superficial perineal pouch. Contents of deep perineal pouch in males:Muscles - Sphincter urethrae, Deep transversus perineiNerves - Dorsal nerve of penis, muscular branch from perineal nerveVessels - Deep and dorsal aeries of penis, stem of origin of aery to the bulb of penis, urethral aery |
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A multipara developed postpaum haemorrhage (PPH) during her 3rd child bih. The most probable cause for her PPH is:: (A) Fibroid, (B) Retained placenta, (C) Uterine atony, (D) Uterine perforation | Answer is C. Causes of postpaum hemorrhage include uterine atony, obstetric lacerations, retained placental tissue, and coagulation defects. Atony is the most common cause of postpaum hemorrhage (50% of cases). Predisposing causes include, Excessive manipulation of the uterus General anesthesia (paicularly with halogenated compounds) Uterine overdistension (twins or polyhydramnios) Prolonged labor Grand multiparity Uterine leiomyomas Operative delivery and intrauterine manipulation Oxytocin induction or augmentation of labor Previous hemorrhage in the third stage Uterine infection Extravasation of blood into the myometrium (Couvelaire uterus) Intrinsic myometrial dysfunction Ref: Poggi S.B. (2013). Chapter 21. Postpaum Hemorrhage & the Abnormal Puerperium. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. |
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A child with hypopigmented hair and mentally retarded with mousy odour urine. Enzyme deficient is?: (A) Cystathione synthase, (B) Tyrosine hydroxylase, (C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase, (D) Tyrosine transaminase | Answer is C. (C) Phenyalanine hydroxylase # PHENYLKETONURIA: phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency.> Disease presents clinically with seizures, hypo pigmentation, musty odour to baby sweat and urine(due to phenylacetate, a carboxylic acid produced by oxidation of phenylketone).> Phenylalanine is first converted to tyrosine.> Hyper phenylalaninemias arise from defects in phenylalanine hydroxylase,(type I, classic phenylketonuria (PKU), frequency 1 in 10,000 births), in dihydrobiopterin reductase (types II and III), or in dihydrobiopterin biosynthesis (types IV and V).> Alternative catabolites are excreted.> Diet low in phenylalanine can prevent the mental retardation of PKU.> DNA probes facilitate prenatal diagnosis of defects in phenylalanine hydroxylase or dihydrobiopterin reductase.> Elevated blood phenylalanine may not be detectable until 3 to 4 days postpartum.> False-positives in premature infants may reflect delayed maturation of enzymes of phenylalanine catabolism.> An older and less reliable screening test employs FeCI3 to detect urinary phenylpyruvate.> FeCI3 screening for PKU of the urine of newborn infants is compulsory in many countries, but in the United States has been largely supplanted by tandem mass spectrometry. |
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Transcription is the synthesis of: (A) Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA, (B) Double stranded complimentary copy of DNA, (C) Complimentary copy of RNA, (D) Complimentary copy of rRNA | Answer is A. None |
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Surgery used to treat posterior capsular Opacification is: (A) Laser Posterior Capsulotomy, (B) Extracapsular cataract Extraction, (C) Phacoemulsification, (D) Lensectomy | Answer is A. Posterior Capsular opacification is a complication of Cataract surgery.
Treatment is Nd : YAG laser posterior capsulotomy. |
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A patient develops acute respiratory distress, stridor, hyperinflation on one side of chest with decreased breath sound on that side. Most likely cause is :: (A) Asthma, (B) Aspiration pneumonia, (C) Foreign body aspiration, (D) Pleural effusion | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e Foreign Body Aspiration Foreign Body Aspiration :It is an important cause of stridor in children.If obstruction occurs it leads to hyperinflation.The overlying chest wall shows hyperresonance.There will be decreased breath sounds.All the other choices mentioned in the question do not cause stridor.Asthma - It is bilateral, There is no stridor (wheezing is present)Aspiration Pneumonia - In Pneumonia there is consolidation of the lung, instead of hyperinflation there is dullness present.Pleural effusion - Dullness is present instead of Hyperinflation. PercussionBreath soundVoice transmissionAdventitious soundForeign body aspirationHyperresonantDecreased Aspiration pneumoniaDullDecreasedDecreasedAbsentAsthmaHyperresonantVesicularNormalWheezingPleural effusionDullDecreasedDecreasedAbsent or pleural friction rubPneumothoraxDullDecreasedDecreasedAbsent or pleural friction rubEmphysemaHyperresonantDecreasedDecreasedAbsent or wheezing |
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Local vasoconstriction is seen with:: (A) Cocaine, (B) Lignocaine, (C) Bupivacaine, (D) Mepivacaine | Answer is A. Cocaine is sympathomimetic and thus causes vasoconstriction. Cocaine is a local anesthetic with potential for abuse. It produces euphoria by inhibiting the uptake of catecholamines in the CNS, especially dopamine. Because of its abuse potential, cocaine is listed as a schedule II controlled substance by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Because of its abuse liability and high toxicity, cocaine use is limited to topical anesthesia of the upper respiratory tract. It is available as 1%, 4% and 10% solutions for topical use. It has intrinsic vasoconstrictor propeies along with local anesthetic propeies. |
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Which of the following drugs combination shows antimicrobial synergism?: (A) Penicillin + Streptomycin in SABE, (B) Ampicillin + Tetracycline in endocarditis, (C) Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim in UTI, (D) Amphotericin B + Flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis | Answer is A. Every AMA has a specific effect on selected microorganisms. Depending on the drug pair as well as the organism involved, either synergism (supra-additive effect), additive action, indifference or antagonism may be observed when two AMAs belonging to different classes are used together Every combination is unique; the same drugs may be synergistic for one organism but antagonistic for another. However, general guidelines are: (a) Two bacteriostatic agents are often additive, rarely synergistic,i.e. combination of tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, etc. (b) Two bactericidal drugs are frequently additive and sometime synergistic if the organism is sensitive to both, e.g.: * Penicillin/ ampicillin + streptomycin/ gentamicin or vancomycin + gentamicin for enterococcal SABE. Penicillins by acting on the cell wall may enhance the penetration of the aminoglycoside into the bacterium (c) Combination of a bactericidal with a bacteriostatic drug may be synergistic or antagonistic depending on the organism ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:677 |
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Penal code for death sentence is ?: (A) 300, (B) 302, (C) 304, (D) 306 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 300 |
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Sentinel lymph node is defined as: (A) Primary LN draining tumor, (B) LN which is first excised during MRM, (C) LN nearest to tumor, (D) None | Answer is A. The first axillary lymphnode draining the breast (by direct drainage) is designated as sentinel lymph node. SLN is first node involved by tumour cells and presence or absence of its histological involvement when assesed will give a predictive idea about fuher spread of tunour to other nodes. SRB's Manual of Surgery.Edition -5. Pg no:543 |
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Ramesh singh, a 40 yrs old man, was admitted with fracture shaft femur following a road traffic accident. Three days after tauma he was tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is ?: (A) Pulomary embolism, (B) Sepsis syndrome, (C) Fat embolism, (D) Hemothorax | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fat embolism This patient in question has femur fracture has developed classical triad of fat embolism :- Respiratory symptom :- Tachypnea Neurological symptom :- Disorientation Petechial rash :- Conjunctivalpetechiae So, the most probable diagnosis is fat embolism syndrome. |
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False about Angurugu syndrome is: (A) Associated with manganese toxicity, (B) Characterised by UMN lesions, cerebellar signs, oculomotor symptoms, (C) Seen in western Australia, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. ANGURUGU SYNDROME: Associated with manganese toxicity Characterised by UMN lesions, cerebellar signs, oculomotor symptoms Seen in western Australia |
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Basanti, 27 year female thinks that her nose is ugly. Her idea is fixed and is not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of the home, She hides her face? She visits a surgeon for plastic surgery. The appropriate next step would be:-: (A) Investigate and then operate, (B) Reassure the patient, (C) Immediate operation, (D) Refer to psychiatrist | Answer is D. This appears to be a case of delusional disorder, somatic type. Its impoant to differentiate it from body dysmorphic disorder. here, the question says that idea is fixed and is not shared by anyone else and patient is fuher hiding her face when visiting outside. In body dysmorphic disorder, the belief is not fixed and may be at least temporarily changed by reassurances of others. |
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Which of the following is responsible for green color on antibiotic disk sensitivity testing?: (A) Pyoverdin and pyocyanin, (B) Pneumolysin, (C) Optochin, (D) Alpha hemolysin | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Pyoverdin and pyocyanin.* Pseudomonas produce pigments by the name of pyoverdin and pyocyanin leading to greenish pigmentation in culture plate.* Pneumococci produce pneumolysin that break downs hemoglobin into a green pigment. This causes pneumococcal colonies to be surrounded by green zone during growth on blood agar plates. The plate in question is not blood agar.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> |
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Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?: (A) Acantamoeba, (B) Naegleria fowleri, (C) Taenia solium, (D) Trichinella spiralis | Answer is D. Trichinella spiralis is not a neuro parasite, it is seen in striated muscles. It causes trichinosis. Pigs are the most impoant reservoirs of human disease. Humans are infected by eating raw or undercooked meat containing larvae encysted in the muscle. The larvae excyst and mature into adults within the mucosa of the small intestine. Eggs hatch within the adult females, and larvae are released and distributed the bloodstream to many organs; however, they develop only in striated muscle cells. Within the muscle cells they can remain ble for several years but eventually calcify. Ref: Review of Medical Microbiology and Immunology By Warren Levinson, 11th Edition, Chapter 56; Self Assessment and Review Microbiology Immunology Revision at a Glance By Chaurasia, 4th Edition, 2009, Page 407 |
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How much ethinyl estriol does the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain (in micrograms): (A) 20, (B) 25, (C) 30, (D) 35 | Answer is A. Composition of 'New low dose OCP' : (Brand name : Femilon/Elogen) Ethinyl estradiol: 0.02mg (20 mcg) Desogestrel: 0.15mg(150 mcg) Composition of Combined OCP: MALA-N Ethinyl estradiol: 0.03mg (30mcg) Norgestrel : 0.15mg (150mcg) Ref: Internet, Organon-India website |
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False about the precipitate formed as a result of reaction of chlorhexidine and NaOCl: (A) Interferes with seal of obturation, (B) Causes cyanosis, (C) To prevent rinse canal with absolute alchohol, (D) NaOCl is always used as final rinse | Answer is D. None |
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How is cooling curve of the body postmoem?: (A) Parabola, (B) Hyperbola, (C) Sigmoid, (D) Linear | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sigmoid Body cooling postmoem follows the Newton's law of cooling.The rates of cooling at the ends of the curve are slower than the rates in the mid poion - resulting in Sigmoidal shape of the cooling curve |
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Most common cause of splenic rupture is -: (A) Malaria, (B) ITP, (C) Thalassemia, (D) Cirrhosis | Answer is A. Most common cause of splenic rupture is Trauma.
In the absence of trauma Spontaneous rupture of spleen occurs due to some minor physical insult to a spleen that has been rendered fragile by an underlying condition. The most common predisposing conditions are IMN, malaria, typhoid fever and lymphoid neoplasms. |
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All of the following are contraindications for root
planning EXCEPT: (A) deficient or overhanging margins of amalgam restorations, (B) erosion and /or abrasion, (C) recession, (D) root caries | Answer is C. None |
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Which of the following statements is true regarding hemangioma of the bone -a) Occurs common in skull bonesb) Requires observation as it is premalignantc) Hamartomous in origind) Forms 10-12% of the bone tumorse) Local gigantism occurs when it occurs in an extremity: (A) acd, (B) bde, (C) ace, (D) ade | Answer is C. None |
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Increased serum calcium is seen in all except:: (A) Myxedema, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) Primary hyperparathyroidism | Answer is A. Answer is A (Myxoedema): Hypercakemia is a feature of Hypehyroidism and not hypothyroidism (Myxoedema) |
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In a patient with AIDS, chorioretinitis is typically caused by: (A) Cytomegalovirus, (B) Toxoplasma gondii, (C) Cryptococcus neoformans, (D) Histoplasma capsulatum | Answer is A. Commonest ocular infection in HIV patient - CMV retinitis Bush- Fire appeareance Pizza- Pie Appearance Sauce & Cheese Appearance OCULAR HIV : - M/C ocular manifestation - Cotton wool spot or soft exudate or HIV retinopathy - M/C occular infection - CMV retinitis - M/C occular tumor - kaposi sarcoma > Lymphoma |
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All are abductors of thigh, except:: (A) Gluteus medius, (B) Gluteus minimus, (C) Saorius, (D) Piriformis | Answer is D. Piriformis |
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Corneal vascularisation is/are caused by:: (A) Graft rejection, (B) Chemical burn, (C) Contact lens use, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. A, B and C |
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Antibody coated bacteria (A.C.B.) is characteristic of which one of the following conditions?: (A) Glomerulonephritis, (B) Pyelonephritis, (C) Hypeension, (D) Perinephric abscess | Answer is A. . |
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True about Latissimus dorsi: (A) Nerve supply from long thoracic nerve, (B) Inseed into bicipital groove of humerus, (C) Use to fill up back defects, (D) Blood supply from lateral thoracic aery | Answer is B. The tendon is twisted upside down and is inseed into floor of the inteubercular sulcus Latissimus dorsi is supplied by the thoracodorsal (long scapular) nerve. The latissimus dorsi is a potential source of muscle for breast reconstruction surgery after mastectomy The dominant blood supply arises from the thoracodorsal aery, which is the terminal branch of the subscapular aery. It also has a secondary blood supply, which arises from segmental perforating branches off of the intercostal and lumbar aeries . Ref - BDC 6th edition Vol 1 ; pg 62,64 |
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Fallot physiology includes all except: (A) TA, (B) Eisenmenger complex, (C) TGA, (D) Tricuspid atresia | Answer is B. Eisenmenger syndrome include reversal of shunt. FALLOT PHYSIOLOGY SYNDROMES # Tetralogy of Fallot # Tricuspid. atresia - PS # Single ventricle - PS # TGA with VSD -- PS # DORV -- VSD -- PS Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:428 |
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Abduction of Hand is caused by: (A) FCR, (B) FCU, (C) FDP, (D) FDS | Answer is A. The flexor carpi radialis muscle originates from the medial epicondlyle of humerus and inses into the bases of 2nd and 3rd metacarpal bones. Its action is abduction of hand at the wrist joint. BD CHAURASIA 7th edition ,page 108 table 9.2 |
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Which of the following is true regarding lattice formation: (A) Associated with precipitation and not agglutination, (B) Associated with agglutination and not precipitation, (C) Associated with both precipitation and agglutination, (D) Associated with neither precipitation and nor agglutination | Answer is C. Lattice formation is possible only in the zone of equivalence.in the zones of antibody or antigen excess lattice doesn't enlarge as their respective valencies are stisfied,this lattice hypothesis holds good for agglutination also. Ref: anantnarayan and panikers 10 th edition. |
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First change to occur in the distal segment of cut nerve:: (A) Myelin degeneration, (B) Axonal degeneration, (C) Mitosis of Schwann cell, (D) Sprouting | Answer is B. After axotomy, the nerve terminals of the injured neuron begin to degenerate (first). |
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Most common causative organism of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy is?: (A) E.coli, (B) Klebsiella pneumonia, (C) Enterobacter, (D) Staphylococcus group | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) E.coliREF: Dutta's textbook of obstetrics 6th ed page 296Incidence of pyelonephritis in pregnancy 1-3%Previous history of urinary tract infection increases chance by 50%Organisms associated are: E:coli (70%), Klebsiella (10%), Enterobacter, Proteus pseudomonas, Staphylococcus aureus |
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A patient undergoes a total gastrectomy because of a proximally located gastric cancer. After the surgery, which of the following digestive enzymes will be produced in inadequate amounts?: (A) Amylase, (B) Chymotrypsin, (C) Lipase, (D) Pepsin | Answer is D. Pepsin is secreted (in an inactive or zymogen form as pepsinogen) by the chief cells of the stomach. Pepsinogen is activated by contact with stomach acid. Although protein digestion usually begins with the actions of hydrochloric acid and pepsin, pancreatic enzymes complete the job as the food passes into the small intestine. Amylases hydrolyze 1->4 glycosidic linkages of starches to produce oligosaccharides, maltose, maltotriose, and limit dextrins. These enzymes are produced by the pancreas and salivary glands. Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme released by the pancreas as the inactive proenzyme, chymotrypsinogen. Lipases are mostly released by the pancreas, and serve to digest various lipids, including triacylglycerols. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 25. Overview of Gastrointestinal Function & Regulation. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. |
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The type of study that determines the norms and limits of the distribution of variables, including the characteristics of the events and population under study, is reffered to as-: (A) Explanatory, (B) Cross-sectional, (C) Descriptive, (D) Analytical | Answer is C. Descriptive studies are the first phase of an epidemiological investigation. Procedures in descriptive studies include: 1)defining the population to be studied 2)defining the disease under study 3)describing the study by time , place, person 4)measurement of disease 5)comparing with known indices 6)formulation of an aetiological hypothesis (refer pgno:63 park 23 rd Edition) |
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HRT therapy can increase the risk of -: (A) Osteoporosis, (B) Breast carcinoma, (C) Alzeihmer's disease, (D) Colorectal cancer | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Breast carcinoma o HRT increases the risk of the following:# Endometrial cancer# Breast carcinomao Reduced risk of the following with HRT:# Alzeihmer's disease# Colorectal cancer# Osteoporosis# Age related hearing loss# HRT prevents lens opacities |
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Reverse cholesterol transpo is mediated by ?: (A) HDL, (B) VLDL, (C) LDL, (D) IDL | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., HDLReverse cholesterol transpoAll nucleated cells in different tissues synthesize cholesterol, but the excretion of cholesterol is mainly by liver in the bile or by enterocytes in gut lumen.So, cholesterol must be transpoed from peripheral tissue to liver for excretion.o This is facilitated by HDL and is called reverse cholesterol transpo because it transpos the cholesterol in reverse direction to that is transpoed from liver to peripheral tissues through VLDL LDL cycle. Processo HDL is synthesized in liver and small intestine.o Nascent HDL contain phospholipids and unesterified cholesterol and Apo-A, C, E.This nascent HDL is secreted into circulation where it acquires additional unesterified cholesterol from peripheral tissues.o Within the HDL paicle, the cholesterol is esterified by lecithin - cholesterol acetyltransferase (LCAT) to form cholesteryl ester and additional lipid are transpoed to HDL from VLDL and chylomicrons.o There are two pathway by which this cholesterol is transpoed to liver. |
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Most common chromosomal syndrome in children is?: (A) Fragile X-syndrome, (B) Trisomy 17, (C) Trisomy 21, (D) Trisomy 13 | Answer is C. **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21) is the most common of the chromosomal disorder. **Trisomy 16 is the most common trisomy overall, however most do not survive and die in utero Hence, among the live bihs, or among children, most common chromosomal abnormality is Trisomy 21 |
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A child can make a tower of 6 cubes at the age of?: (A) 36 months, (B) 18 months, (C) 12 months, (D) 24 months | Answer is D. A child can make a tower of 6 cubes at 2 years. -tower of 2 cubes at 15 months, 3 cube tower at the age of 18 months |
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All of the following are features of Goodpasture syndrome, except:: (A) Antibody to alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen (COL4A3), (B) Glomerular basement membrane is involved, (C) Pulmonary haemorrhage, (D) Subendothelial IgG deposits in renal biopsy | Answer is D. Goodpasture syndrome Uncommon autoimmune disease in which kidney and lung injury are caused by circulating autoantibodies. Most common in 2nd & 3rd decades of life. Anti-GBM antibody-mediated disease Goodpasture syndrome applies to the 40% to 60% of patients with these autoantibodies who develop pulmonary hemorrhage in addition to renal disease. Characterized by linear deposits of IgG and, in many cases, C3 in the GBM. The antigen common to the alveoli and GBM is a peptide within the noncollagenous poion of the a3 chain of collagen type IV (COL4A3). |
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systematic sensitization is used in: (A) dissosiation, (B) phobia, (C) schioid personality, (D) psychosis | Answer is B. SYSTEMATIC DESENSITIZATION JOSEPH WOLPE Joseph Wolpe gave the concept of systematic desensitization This is a treatment used in phobia In phobia there is a conditioned fear response to aversive neutral stimulus and avoidance of that response leads to phobia Whenever there is a fear response there is stimulation of sympathetic system In that case stimulation of parasympathetic system by relaxation there is reduction in anxiety First step is to make a step ladder which are arranged based on the severity Then is go step by step and along with doing applied relaxation Slowly the the sympathetic system is reduced The patient will be able to approach stimulus without anxiety Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 |
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Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a pathognomonic feature of:: (A) Hypoparathyroidism, (B) Hyperparathyroidism, (C) Hypothyroidism, (D) Hypehyroidism | Answer is C. Hypothyroidism |
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True about specificity-: (A) True positive, (B) False positive, (C) True negative, (D) False negative | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' Le., True negative o When a screening test is used to diagnose a disease, the test oucome can be positive (diseased) or negative (healthy), while the actual health status of the person may be different,o In that settingi) True positive-Diseased people correctly diagnosed as diseased.ii) False positive-Healthy people wrongly identified as diseased.iii) Tme negative-Healthy people correctly identified as healthy.iv) False negative-Diseased people wrongly identified as healthy.o There are two major statistical measures for the validity of a screening test: -i) Sensitivityii) SpecificitySensitivityo It is the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, i.e., true positive.o In other words sensitivity measures the precentage of sick people who are identified as having disease,o For example if a test is 90% sensitive, that means out of 100 diseased people, it will diagnose 90 (90% of diseased people will be diagnosed). Remaining 10% will be wrongly indentified as not having the disease, i.e., false negative.Specificityo It is the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease i.e., true negativeo In other words specificity measures the percentage of well people who are identified as not having the disease,o For example, a 90 percent specificity' means that 90% of nondiseased people will be identified as not having the disease. The remaining 10% will be wrongly classified as diseased, i.e., false positive. |
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A 75 year old patient presents with deterioration of vision. On examination the pupillary reflex is observed to be sluggish and the intraocular pressure is normal. Optic disc evaluation shows a large and deep cup and paracentral scotomas. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Primary Narrow angle glaucoma, (B) Normal Tension Glaucoma, (C) Neovascular Glaucoma, (D) Absolute Glaucoma | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Normal Tension GlaucomaRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 346; Yanoff 3/e, p. 1159Glaucomatous cupping (large and deep cup) along with glaucomatous visual field defects (paracentral scotomas are the most frequent) in patients with normal intraocular pressure suggests a diagnosis of Normal Tension Glaucoma (NTG). |
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Lungs do not collapse during expiration because of the presence of?: (A) Hyaline membrane, (B) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline, (C) Macrophages, (D) Interstitial fluid | Answer is B. b. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline(Ref: Ghai 8/e p 169-170)Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline is an important constituent of Surfactant, which prevent alveolar collapse during expiration. |
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Artery usually torn in temporal bone fracture is:: (A) Middle meningeal artery, (B) Posterior auricular artery, (C) Transverse facial artery, (D) Deep temporal artery | Answer is A. Ans. (A). Middle meningeal arteryType of haemorrhageCommonest sourceExtradural haemorrhageMiddle meningeal arterySub dural haemorrhageBridging veinsSub arachnoid haemorrhageAneurysm - Circle of willisIntracerebral haemorrhageLenticulo-striate artery |
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Saroj, a 32 year old female, from rural background presented with a h/o chronic tobacco chewing since 14 year of age. Now she has difficulty in opening her mouth. On oral examination, no ulcers are seen - Most probable diagnosis is -: (A) Submucous oral fibrosis, (B) Carcinoma of buccal mucosa, (C) TM joint ahritis, (D) Trigeminal nerve paralysis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' ie. Submucous oral fibrosis " Submucous oral fibrosis is a progressive ds. in which fibrous bands form beneath the oral mucosa. These bands progressively contract so that ultimately mouth opening is severly limited. Tongue movements may also be limited. This conditon is almost entirely confined to Asians. Histologically it is characterized by juxtaepithelial fibrosis with atrophy or hyperplasia of the overlying epithelium which also shows areas of epithelial dysplasias. The etiology is abscure. Hypersensitivity to chilli ; betel nut, tobacco and vitamin deficiencies have been implicated. The scar bands of submucous fibrosis, which result in difficulty in opening can be treated either by intralesional injection of steroids or by surgical excision and grafting, but this has little effect in preventing the onset of squamous cell Ca in the generally atrophic oral mucosa (Submucous oral fibrosis is a precancerous conditon for squamons cell Ca)."- Bailey & Love |